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सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: Bank of Baroda Clerical Recruitment March2010

2010-03-16T21:03:00.000-07:00

सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: Bank of Baroda Clerical Recruitment March2010

RRB TECHNICAL 05/2010 NOTIFICATION

2010-03-07T20:18:00.001-08:00

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INDIA ECONOMIC SURVEY 2009-10

2010-02-25T01:19:00.001-08:00

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सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: Oriental Insurance Administrative Officer vacancy Feb2010

2010-02-22T21:26:00.000-08:00

सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: Oriental Insurance Administrative Officer vacancy Feb2010

2010-02-21T22:20:00.001-08:00

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2010-02-19T00:39:00.001-08:00

2010-02-19T00:37:00.001-08:00

2010-02-18T23:52:00.003-08:00

2010-02-18T23:52:00.001-08:00

RRB NON TECHNICAL CATEGORIES NOTIFICATION

2010-02-14T21:27:00.000-08:00

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DECCAN GRAMIN BANK CLERICAL NOTIFICATION

2010-02-11T20:43:00.001-08:00

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APPSC EXAMS SCHEDULE ON MARCH, APRIL

2010-02-10T21:06:00.001-08:00

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General Science Zoology Questions

2010-02-03T21:07:00.000-08:00

General Science Zoology Questions

1. Bruch’s membrane is found in—
(A) Inner ear
(B) Uvea of eye
(C) Testes
(D) Pancreas

2. Which part of brain allows one side of brain to control opposite side of body ?
(A) Midbrain
(B) Medulla
(C) Cerebellum
(D) Pons

3. Fetuin is found in—
(A) Foetus
(B) Liver
(C) Spleen
(D) None of these

4. Hensen’s body is associated with—
(A) Retina of eye
(B) Organ of Corti
(C) Heart
(D) Skin

5. Sensory receptor of warmth located principally at the lip of fingers is known as—
(A) Ruffini’s corpuscles
(B) Organ of Zuckerkandl
(C) Organ of Giraldes
(D) Weber’s organ

6. Which of the following is basic amino acid ?
(A) Alanine
(B) Aspartic acid
(C) Asparagine
(D) Arginine

7. Which of the following amino acid is sulphurbearing compound ?
(A) Methionine
(B) Alanine
(C) Aspartic acid
(D) Arginine

8. Negri bodies are associated with—
(A) Rabies
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberclosis
(D) Hepatitis

9. Schultze’s bundle is associated with—
(A) Brain
(B) Spinal cord
(C) Heart
(D) None of these

10. Schlemm’s canal is present in—
(A) Eye
(B) Cochlea
(C) Spinal cord
(D) Vertebrae

11. Capsule of Tenon is associated with—
(A) Eyeball
(B) Brain
(C) Skin
(D) Kidney

12. Which of the following law is associated with the fact that anterior spinal nerve roots contain only motor fibres and posterior roots only sensory fibres ?
(A) Magendie’s law
(B) Bell’s law
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

13. In birds—
(A) Left oviduct and right aortic arch are present
(B) Left oviduct and left aortic arch are present
(C) Right oviduct, left ovary and right aortic arch are present
(D) Left oviduct, left ovary and right aortic arch are present

14. Ancestral amphibians were tetrapods that evolved during—
(A) Devonian period
(B) Carboniferous period
(C) Jurassic period
(D) Cretaceous period

15. Community health services involves—
(A) Control of communicable diseases
(B) School and health education
(C) Awareness of clean environment
(D) All the above

16. The active rolling over of endodermal and mesodermal cells from the embryo surface
into the interior is defined as—
(A) Ingression
(B) Involution
(C) Epiboly
(D) Inversion

17. The wall of heart is made up of—
(A) Epicardium
(B) Myocardium
(C) Endocardium
(D) All the above

18. Genetic counsellors can identify heterozygous individuals by—
(A) Height of individual
(B) Colour of individual
(C) Screening procedures
(D) All the above

19. Which of the following enzyme is secreted by intestinal mucosa that remain closely associated with the microvilli ?
(A) Peptidase
(B) Disaccharidase
(C) Trypsin
(D) Both (A) and (B)

20. Which of the following is absorbed by intestinal mucosa by active transport ?
(A) Galactose
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Both (A) and (B)

21. A starving person consumes first—
(A) Body fats
(B) Body proteins
(C) Vitamins
(D) Stored glycogen

22. The functional unit of contractile system in striated muscle is—
(A) Cross bridges
(B) Sarcomeres
(C) Myofibril
(D) Z-band

23. Globular proteins undergo structural changes in response to extremes of pH or temperature, is called—
(A) Renaturation
(B) Denaturation
(C) Combination
(D) Both (A) and (B)

24. The study of relationships between size and shape is known as—
(A) Allometry
(B) Heterochrony
(C) Isometry
(D) Allochrony

25. A localised tumour covered by connective tissue is called—
(A) Metastasis
(B) Neoplasm
(C) Benign tumour
(D) Malignant tumour

26. Hürthle cell is associated with—
(A) Thyroid gland
(B) Pituitary gland
(C) Adrenal gland
(D) Pancreas

27. A metastatic cancerous tumour is termed ‘sarcoma’, if the disorder is in—
(A) Immune system
(B) Epithelial cells
(C) Fibroblasts
(D) Circulatory system

28. Graft between isogenic individuals is known as—
(A) Syngraft
(B) Allograft
(C) Xenograft
(D) None of these

29. The most striking example of point mutation is found in a disorder called—
(A) Thalassemia
(B) Nightblindness
(C) Down’s syndrome
(D) Sickle-cell anaemia

30. The phenomenon of ‘industrial melanism’ demonstrates—
(A) Natural selection
(B) Induced mutation
(C) Reproductive isolation
(D) Geographical isolation

31. Overproduction of which of the following neurotransmitter has been associated with the mental disorder ‘Schizophrenia’ ?
(A) Acetylcholine
(B) GABA
(C) Dopamine
(D) Serotonin

32. Milk tastes sour when kept in the open for sometime due to for-mation of—
(A) Carbonic acid
(B) Lactic acid
(C) Citric acid
(D) Malic acid

33. Red tide is caused by—
(A) Protozoans
(B) Corals
(C) Dinoflagellates
(D) All the above

34. A type of hypersensitivity to allergen in which humoral antibodies attach to mast cells and basophils, may result in circulatory shock, is called—
(A) Orthopnea
(B) Anaphylaxis
(C) Rhinitis
(D) Immunologic surveillance

35. Organisms with very high intrinsic growth rates have—
(A) Long generation times
(B) Short generation times
(C) No courtship behaviours
(D) No carrying capacity

36. Which of the following organism is iteroparous ?
(A) Pacific salmon fish
(B) Virus
(C) Bacteria
(D) Humans

37. A micromutation is—
(A) Polyploidy
(B) Addition of chromosome
(C) Deletion of chromosome
(D) Change in gene frequency

38. The limited period of sexual receptivity that occurs around the time of ovulation in all
female mammals except humans is called—
(A) Menstruation
(B) Luteinization
(C) Oogenesis
(D) Estrus

39. The rate and force of the heart-beat, and the secretion of digestive glands are controlled by—
(A) Central nervous system
(B) Spinal nerves
(C) Cranial nerves
(D) Autonomic nervous system

40. Glycosidic bond is broken during digestion of—
(A) Protein
(B) Starch
(C) Lipid
(D) All the above

41. Postganglionic parasympathetic fibres are—
(A) Adrenergic
(B) Cholinergic
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

42. In glycosuria disorder, urine contains—
(A) Amino acid
(B) Inorganic ions
(C) Glucose
(D) Epithelial cells

43. Mammillary bodies are attached to the ventral side of—
(A) Olfactory lobe
(B) Cerebral hemisphere
(C) Diencephalon
(D) Medulla oblongata

44. Argentaffin cells are associated with—
(A) Tumour
(B) Heart muscle
(C) Pericardium
(D) Pelvis of kidney

45. Sweating on palm and sole due to psychic stimuli is called—
(A) Bradykinin
(B) Blushing
(C) Cold sweat
(D) None of these

46. Inherited Rh gene is found in—
(A) Rh+ individuals
(B) Rh– individuals
(C) AB blood group individuals
(D) O blood group individuals

47. The ‘soft spot’ on the top of an infant’s skull is called—
(A) Suture
(B) Fontanel
(C) Ligament
(D) Fascia

48. Concentration of carbonic acid does not increase in blood due to the presence of—
(A) Na+
(B) K+
(C) Ca++
(D) Mg++

49. Staph food poisoning is related with—
(A) Salmonella bacteria
(B) Clostridium bacteria
(C) Staphylococcus bacteria
(D) None of these

50. Capacitation is—
(A) Final stage in maturation of spermatozoa
(B) Final stage in fertilization
(C) Maturation of ovum
(D) All of these

Answers with Hints
1. (B) Bruch’s membrane is a glassy membrane of the uvea of eye lying between the choroids membrane and the pigmented epithelium of the retina. It is also known as lamina basalis of the choroid or vitreous lamella.
2. (B) Medulla contains ascending sensory and descending motor nerves, and contains site where major motor nerves cross to opposite side of nervous system, allowing one side of brain to control opposite side of body.
3. (A) Fetuin is a type of globulin found in foetus and is required for the cell proliferation
and growth of foetus.
4. (B) Hensen’s body is modified Golgi net found in the hair cells of the Organ of Corti.
5. (A) Ruffini’s corpuscles are encapsulated sensory nerve endings found in subcutaneous
tissue of finger tips and thought to mediate sense of warmth.
6. (D) Arginine is crystalline basic amino acid obtained from decomposition of vegetable
tissues, protamines and proteins.
7. (A)
8. (A) Negri bodies are very minute bodies formed in nerve cells of the brain of one affected by rabies.
9. (B) Schultze’s bundle is commashaped path of fibres in middle of spinal cord’s fasciculus cuneatus.
10. (A) Schlemm’s canal is space or series of spaces at the junction of the sclera and the cornea of the eye into which aqueous humor is drained from the anterior chamber through
the pectinate villi.
11. (A) Capsule of Tenon is a thin fibrous sac enveloping the eyeball, forming a socket in
which it rotates.
12. (C) 13. (B)
14. (B) Carboniferous was the recent period of the Palaeozoic, some 355–280 million years ago. It was characterized by the evolution amphibians on swampy land, a few primitive early reptiles and giant ferns.
15. (D)
16. (B) Involution is rolling over of cells during gastrulation from the surface towards interior of the developing gastrula.
17. (D) Heart’s wall possesses three layers, i.e., the outer epicardium (serous layer), the middle myocardium (cardiac muscle), and the inner endocardium. Endocardium lines the four chambers of the heart and covers the valves.
18. (C) Carriers of genetic disorders (those heterozygous for the condition, but who do not themselves exhibit it) can be diagnosed through screening procedures during genetic
counselling.
19. (D) The epithelial cells of the intestinal mucose manufacture and secrete peptidase and disaccharidase digestive enzymes. They are not released into the lumen of the intestine but remain closely associated with the microvilli of the epithelial cells.
20. (D) The glucose and galactose enter intestinal mucosa by active transport, while fructose enters by facilitated diffusion.
21. (D) The liver stores glycogen to fulfil body’s requirement of glucose for energy during starvation.
22. (B)
23. (B) Changes occurring to molecules of globular proteins and nucleic acid in solution in response to extremes of pH or temperature is called denaturation.
24. (A) Allometry is the study of relationship between size and shape. Organisms do not grow isometrically, rather proportions change as size changes.
25. (C)
26. (A) Hürthle cell is benign or malignant tumour of the thyroid gland. The cells are large and acidophilic.
27. (C) Sarcomas are cancer of connective tissues. Fibroblast is the characteristic cell type of vertebrate connective tissue.
28. (A) Syngraft is also known as isograft. It is a kind of grafting between isogenic individuals such as identical twins.
29. (D) Point mutations involve minor changes in the genetic material, often single base-pair substitution. Sickle-cell anaemia is genetically determined disorder, caused by homozygosity, producing a single amino acid substitution in the b-chain of the normal haemoglobin molecule.
30. (A) Industrial melanism provides one of the best examples of evolution within species and of natural selection.
31. (C) Dopamine is a neurotransmitter whose low concentration produces symptoms of Parkinson’s disease and over production causes Schizophrenia.
32. (B) Lactic acid is a carboxylic acid, formed in metabolism of many bacteria. In milk, lactose is converted into lactic acid by metabolic activities of bacteria. Lactic acid
gives sour taste to milk.
33. (C) Red tide is reddish discolouration of coastal surface waters due to concentrations of certain toxin producing dinoflagellates.
34. (B) Anaphylaxis is a type of hypersensitivity resulting due to interaction of humoral antibodies with mast cells and basophils.
35. (B) 36. (D)
37. (D) Mutations which are large and conspicuous are called macromutations and those very inconspicuous are called micromutation. Change in the genic frequency is the constituent of microevolution.
38. (D) Estrus is the cyclic period of sexual activity in non human female mammals, characterized by congestion of and secretion by the uterine mucosa. During estrus the animal is said to be ‘in heat’.
39. (D) 40. (B)
41. (B) Cholinergic fibres include all preganglionic fibres, all postganglionic parasympathetic fibres, which liberate acetylcholine at their nerve endings.
42. (C)
43. (C) A pair of small rounded bodies, the mammillary bodies lie behind the infundi-bulum in Diencephalon.
44. (A) Argentaffinoma is tumour, having argentaffin cells.
45. (C) 46. (A)
47. (B) In a newborn infant, the bones of the skull are still developing and these are relatively wide spaces between them. The spaces contain tough sheets of connective tissue that connect the bones and are called fontanels.
48. (A)
49. (C) Staph food poisoning, once known as ptomaine poisoning, results from toxins produced by Staphylococcus bacteria growing on food.
50. (A) Capacitation is the final stage in maturation of mammalian spermatozoa, without
which they cannot engage in fertilization.

1. Heparin is secreted by—
(A) Fibroblasts
(B) Mast cells
(C) Plasmocytes
(D) Adipocytes

2. Interdependent genes with related functions, form—
(A) A coadapted gene complex
(B) An inversion
(C) A fitness set
(D) A super mutation

3. Which of the following animal has rhabditiform larva in its life cycle ?
(A) Ascaris
(B) Liverfluke
(C) Hydra
(D) Taenia

4. Which of the following Mollusc is cultured in water for producing pearls in India ?
(A) Pinctada
(B) Heliotis
(C) Anodonta
(D) Mytilus

5. Enzymes promote chemical reaction by—
(A) Reducing the activation energies
(B) Causing the release of heat which acts as a primer
(C) Increasing molecular motion
(D) Changing the free energy difference between substrate and product

6. The modification of hind pair of wings into halteres is the characteristic of—
(A) Lepidoptera
(B) Orthoptera
(C) Hemiptera
(D) Diptera

7. A molecule of ATP is structurally similar to a molecule of—
(A) RNA molecule
(B) DNA molecule
(C) Amino acid
(D) Fatty acid

8. Class Trematoda belongs to the phylum—
(A) Platyhelminthes
(B) Arthropoda
(C) Mollusca
(D) Annelida

9. Albinism is caused due to lack of production of—
(A) Tyrosine 3-monooxygenase
(B) Homogentisic acid oxidase
(C) Thiamine pyrophosphate
(D) Phenylalanine hydroxylase

10. Maximum power of division is found in the skin layer—
(A) Stratum granulosum
(B) Stratum malpighi
(C) Stratum spinosum
(D) Stratum corneum

11. Tube feet are characteristic of—
(A) Star fish
(B) Cuttle fish
(C) Cray fish
(D) Jelly fish

12. Which of the following is egg laying mammal ?
(A) Pangolin
(B) Porcupine
(C) Tachyglossus
(D) Bat

13. Acetylcholine is responsible for transmission of nerve impulses through—
(A) Dendrites
(B) Axons
(C) Cytons
(D) Synapses

14. Loss of ability to speak due to defect of vocal organs, is called—
(A) Alalia
(B) Alaorina
(C) Alate
(D) Albidus

15. Termination of amino acid chain requires codons—
(A) UAG, UAA, UGA
(B) UUU, GGU, UGG
(C) GUG, UGG, AUG
(D) UGG, GGG, AUG

16. ‘A tube within a tube’ body plan is met within—
(A) Hydra
(B) Plannaria
(C) Ascaris
(D) Fasciola

17. The parts of neurons that perform basic cellular functions, such as protein synthesis, are the—
(A) Somas
(B) Axons
(C) Dendrites
(D) Synaptic knobs

18. Lewy bodies are found in—
(A) Brain
(B) Plasma
(C) Lymph
(D) Kidneys

19. A hormone that stimulates the secretion of pancreatic secretions to neutralize the acid chyme from the stomach, is—
(A) Insulin
(B) Secretin
(C) Oxytocin
(D) Glucagon

20. Which of the following pair is correctly matched ?
(A) Excessive perspiration—Xeric adaptation
(B) Parasitism—Interspecific relationship
(C) Uricotelism—Aquatic habitat
(D) Streamline body—Aquatic adaptation

21. Cross bridges, which connect the molecules of a fibril during muscle contraction, are made of—
(A) Actin
(B) Collagen
(C) Myosin
(D) Creatine phosphate

22. Muscles of alimentary canal are chiefly—
(A) Striated and neurogenic
(B) Unstriated and neurogenic
(C) Striated and myogenic
(D) Unstriated and myogenic

23. The photosensitive parts of rod cells are made up of—
(A) Rhodopsin
(B) Myelin
(C) Keratin
(D) Actin

24. The protein which maintains the muscular storage of oxygen is—
(A) Myosin
(B) Myoglobin
(C) Actomyosin
(D) All the above

25. Tiedemann’s bodies are found in—
(A) Sponges
(B) Hydra
(C) Asterias
(D) Hirudinaria

26. In a normal person at rest the cardiac output or amount of blood pumped per minute by the left ventricle is approximately—
(A) 1/2 litre
(B) 1 litre
(C) 2 litres
(D) 5 litres

27. Biogeographical regions are also called—
(A) Zones
(B) Realms
(C) Epoch
(D) Era

28. Human nerve cells develop from the embryonic—
(A) Ectoderm and mesoderm
(B) Endoderm
(C) Ectoderm
(D) Mesoderm

29. Vertebrate kidney has a following basic unit—
(A) Nephron
(B) Ureter
(C) Malpighian tubule
(D) All of the above

30. In cladistics—
(A) A clad must contain the common ancestor
(B) Derived characters help construct cladograms
(C) Data for the cladogram is presented
(D) All the above

31. Which of the following organ develops first ?
(A) Liver
(B) Heart
(C) Notochord
(D) Kidneys

32. The infective stage of malarial parasite is—
(A) Metacryptozoite
(B) Cryptozoite
(C) Schizont
(D) Sporozoite

33. The ion mainly absorbed in the distal convoluted part of
nephron—
(A) Na+
(B) K+
(C) Mg++
(D) Po4– –

34. Quadriceps and Gastronemius muscles are present in—
(A) Wrist
(B) Hands
(C) Legs
(D) Shoulder

35. FSH and LH hormones together are called—
(A) Emergency hormone
(B) Gonadotropic hormone
(C) Neuro hormones
(D) Outstress hormones

36. Shivering in severe cold is caused by—
(A) Voluntary action of striated muscles
(B) Voluntary action of unstriated muscles
(C) Involuntary action of striated muscles
(D) Involuntary action of unstriated muscles

37. Hypocalcemia is caused due to under secretion of—
(A) Thyroxine
(B) Paratharmone
(C) Testosterone
(D) Glucagon

38. The emergency hormone in humans is—
(A) Thyroxine
(B) Adrenaline
(C) Insulin
(D) Progesterone

39. Polio immunising vaccine was developed by—
(A) E. Jenner
(B) Dr. Salk
(C) St. Hale
(D) Landsteiner

40. In mammals which organ acts as blood bank ?
(A) Heart
(B) Lung
(C) Liver
(D) Spleen

41. Structure involved in Addison’s disease is—
(A) Adrenal cortex
(B) Adrenal medulla
(C) Pituitary
(D) Thyroid

42. Biceps and Triceps surround—
(A) Radius
(B) Ulna
(C) Humerus
(D) Femur

43. Chemical nature of insulin is—
(A) Steroid
(B) Lipid
(C) Protein
(D) Carbohdyrate

44. Which of these is present in human buccal cavity ?
(A) Ptyalin
(B) Trypsin
(C) Lipase
(D) Pepsin

45. Outermost covering of brain is—
(A) Choroid
(B) Arachnoid
(C) Duramater
(D) All of these

46. The application of genetic principles for the improvement of mankind is—
(A) Genetic engineering
(B) Biotechnology
(C) Eugenics
(D) Anthropology

47. Cockroach and other insects possess an—
(A) Open type vascular system
(B) Closed type vascular system
(C) No vascular system
(D) Both (A) and (B)

48. Ganglioside is found in—
(A) Nerve
(B) Smooth muscles
(C) Carolia muscles
(D) Liver cells

49. ‘Metachrosis’ is found in—
(A) Mammals
(B) Amphibians
(C) Birds
(D) All of these

50. Healthy parents with normal height gave birth to a achondroplasia (dwarf) child. This is due to—
(A) Spontaneous mutation
(B) Point mutation
(C) Induced mutation
(D) None of these

Answers with Hints
1. (B) Mast cells secrete heparin, a proteoglycan, which is an anticoagulant.
2. (A)
3. (A) After gastrulation, a juvenile is formed in Ascaris. It is 0•2 mm long and having close with Rhabditis, a nematode found in the soil and human faeces. The rhabditoid larva of the first stage is not infective.
4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (A)
9. (A) The persons with recessive aa genes do not produce the tyrosine 3-monooxygenase which is needed by melanocytes for converting DOPA (3, 4-dihydroxyphenylalanine) into melanin (a dark brown pigment).
10. (B) 11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (D)14. (A)
15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (A)
18. (A) Lewy bodies are neuronal cells with pigmented inclusion bodies. They are found in brain in the substantia nigra and locus ceruleus.
19. (B) 20. (D) 21. (C)
22. (B) Muscles of alimentary canal are smooth unstriated and are innervated by fibres of ANS. These muscles are neurogenic.
23. (A) The photosensitive part of rod and cone cells are their outer segments. In rods, this part contains a shining pigment called rhodopsin or visual purple. Like haemoglobin, rhodopsin is a compound of a protein (= opsin or scotopsin) and a pigment (retinene).
24. (B)
25. (C) Tiedemann’s bodies are small rounded, yellowish glandular sacs opening into the ring canal on its inner side. There is one Tiedemann’s body between each radius and inner radius except in one such position where the stone canals enters the ring canal.
26. (D) 27. (B) 28. (C) 29. (A)
30. (D) The cladistic school analyses primitive and derived characters and construct cladograms on the basis of shared derived characters. A clad is a common ancestor and all the species derived from that common ancestor. Cladograms are diagrams based on objective data.
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (C) 35. (B)
36. (C) Shivering is due to increased involuntary striated muscle activity in response to excessive cold.
37. (B) When there is undersecretion of paratharmone, the level of calcium in ECF falls (hypocalcemia), and that of phosphate rises. Such a condition is responsible for neuromuscular hyperexcitability.
38. (B) 39. (B) 40. (D) 41. (A) 42. (C)
43. (C) 44. (A) 45. (C) 46. (C) 47. (A)
48. (A) 49. (B)
50. (A) The child’s achondroplasia arose from de novo mutation in either his mother’s or father’s gamete. Such a spontaneous mutation usually originates as a DNA replication error.

1. T8 cells are related with—
(A) Helper T cells
(B) Cytotoxic T cells
(C) Suppressor T cell
(D) None of the above

2. In humans, which brain wave pattern disappears entirely during sleep ?
(A) Alpha waves
(B) Beta waves
(C) Theta waves
(D) Delta waves

3. Which of the following is lymphatic system related disease ?
(A) Hodgkin’s disease
(B) Multiple myeloma
(C) Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
(D) All the above

4. Hodgkin’s disease is associated with—
(A) Lymphocytes
(B) Leucocytes
(C) Erythrocytes
(D) All the above

5. In humans, which side of cerebral hemisphere recognises the faces of friends and family members ?
(A) Left cerebral hemisphere
(B) Right cerebral hemisphere
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

6. Honey that has a high concentration of sugar, does not decay because—
(A) It contains natural antioxidant that prevent bacterial attack
(B) Bacteria cannot survive in an active state in a solution of high osmotic strength, as water is drawn out from honey
(C) In honey bacteria are totally deprived of oxygen
(D) None of the above

7. Prosoma in scorpion comprises—
(A) Head
(B) Head and thorax
(C) Head, thorax and abdomen
(D) Only abdomen

8. What causes Pituitary Nanism ?
(A) Hyposecretion of Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
(B) Hypersecretion of Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
(C) Hyposecretion of Somatotrophic hormone
(D) Hypersecretion of Somatotrophic hormome

9. Which of the following is ironstoring protein ?
(A) Alpha glubulin
(B) Gamma glubulin
(C) Ferritin
(D) Albumins

10. Red tide is caused by—
(A) Protozoans
(B) Corals
(C) Dinoflagellates
(D) All the above

11. The major constituent of vertebrate bone is—
(A) Calcium phosphate
(B) Calcium carbonate
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Potassium hydroxide

12. Find the odd one out—
(A) Guineaworm
(B) Hookworm
(C) Ringworm
(D) Tapeworm

13. Taste buds located on tongue, are example of—
(A) Interoreceptors
(B) Exteroreceptors
(C) Teloreceptors
(D) Phonoreceptors

14. Body cells infected with virus produce a protein called—
(A) Interferon
(B) Properdin
(C) Gamma globulin
(D) Hybridoma

15. Capacitation of sperm in mammals involves—
(A) Sperm size change
(B) Acrosome reaction
(C) Nuclear chromatin change
(D) Mitochondrial alignment

16. Marfan syndrome is inherited as an autosomal dominant abnormality of—
(A) Eyes
(B) Cardiovascular system
(C) Skeletal system
(D) All the above

17. The cytoplasmic segment of striated muscle fibre is termed—
(A) Metamere
(B) Neuromere
(C) Sarcoplasm
(D) Sarcomere

18. Which one of the following is pandemic disease ?
(A) Amoebic dysentery
(B) Hepatitis
(C) Filariasis
(D) Influenza

19. Corpus striatum is found in—
(A) Paracoel
(B) Diocoel
(C) Metacoel
(D) Cerebral hemisphere

20. The polio virus enters the body through—
(A) Mosquito bites
(B) Tick bites
(C) Contaminated food and water
(D) Saliva and secretion from the nose

21. Products of adenine and guanine metabolism are excreted by humans as—
(A) Ammonia
(B) Urea
(C) Uric acid
(D) Allantoin

22. The rate and force of the heartbeat, the secretion of digestive glands are controlled by the—
(A) Central nervous system
(B) Spinal nerves
(C) Cranial nerves
(D) Autonomic nervous system

23. The extra embryonic membranes of mammalian embryo are derived from—
(A) Inner cell mass
(B) Trophoblast
(C) Formative cells
(D) Follicle cells

24. People who live at high altitudes have rosy cheeks because—
(A) Haemoglobin has an increased binding affinity for oxygen
(B) RBCs and haemoglobin concentration becomes considerably above the average in response to lowered oxygen pressure
(C) Rate of capillary circulation increases in the skin
(D) All the above

25. Which of the following animal belongs to phylum Mollusca ?
(A) Globe fish
(B) Star fish
(C) Silver fish
(D) Cuttle fish

26. Milk teeth in a child of 3-4 years do not include—
(A) Incisors
(B) Canines
(C) Molars
(D) Premolars

27. Which of the following is the only poisonous lizard of the world ?
(A) Ophiosaurus
(B) Varanus
(C) Heloderma
(D) Draco

28. Wharton’s duct in man is related to—
(A) Male genital organs
(B) Brunner’s gland
(C) Submandibular salivary gland
(D) All the above

29. The secretions from which of the following glands form ootheca in cockroach ?
(A) Colleterial glands
(B) Mushroom glands
(C) Phallic glands
(D) Spermatheca

30. Sensory cells that occur in the pits or canals of lateral line system of fishes are—
(A) Neurochrome
(B) Neuroglia
(C) Neuromast
(D) None of the above

31. The thickening of wall of artery is called—
(A) Aneurysm
(B) Arteriosclerosis
(C) Arthritis
(D) Both (A) and (C)

32. Lining of human intestine is—
(A) Ciliated
(B) Keratinized
(C) Brush border
(D) All the above

33. Which blood group has both 'a' and 'b' antibodies ?
(A) O
(B) AB
(C) A
(D) B

34. Glycosidic bond is broken during digestion of—
(A) Protein
(B) Starch
(C) Lipid
(D) All of these

35. Passive food ingestion in Amoeba is known as—
(A) Invagination
(B) Import
(C) Circumfluence
(D) Circumvallation

36. In gout patients, high level of one of the following is found in blood—
(A) Urea
(B) Uric acid
(C) Cholesterol
(D) All the above

37. The anion present in pancreatic juice is—
(A) Chloride
(B) Bromide
(C) Phosphate
(D) Bicarbonate

38. Preganglionic sympathetic fibres are—
(A) Adrenergic
(B) Cholinergic
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these

39. The muscles associated with the heart of insects are—
(A) Radial
(B) Alary
(C) Striped
(D) Pericardial

40. The goblet cells present in the intestinal lining are—
(A) Holocrine
(B) Merocrine
(C) Apocrine
(D) Endocrine

41. Chaga’s disease is caused by—
(A) Trypanosoma gambiense
(B) Trypanosoma cruzi
(C) Trypanosoma bruci
(D) None of the above

42. A chemical process common in the digestion of all kinds of food is—
(A) Condensation
(B) Hydrolysis
(C) Phosphorylation
(D) Emulsification

43. The muscles present on the posterior aspect of thigh that flex the leg and adduct and extend the thigh in human are—
(A) Semitendinosus
(B) Semimembranosus
(C) Biceps femoris
(D) All the above

44. The P-wave of the electrocardiogram is associated with—
(A) Contraction of atria
(B) Depolarization of atrial muscular tissues
(C) Contraction of ventricles
(D) Repolarization of S–A node

45. Septicemia is—
(A) Food poisoning
(B) Blood poisoning
(C) Mental disorder
(D) None of the above

46. Which of the following stops the action of acetylcholine ?
(A) Acetylcholinesterase
(B) Acetylcoenzyme-A
(C) Acetylcysteine
(D) Acetyltransferase

47. In mammalian heart, the pulmonary is powered by—
(A) Right atrium and right ventricle
(B) Left atrium and right ventricle
(C) Only right ventricle
(D) Only left ventricle

48. Dartos tunic muscle fibres occur in—
(A) Uterine wall
(B) Urethral wall
(C) Abdominal wall
(D) Scrotal wall

49. Which of these muscles help urinary bladder to expel urine forcefully ?
(A) Detrusor muscle
(B) Latissimus dorsi
(C) Hamstring muscle
(D) None of the above

50. During embryonic development in humans, morula is enclosed by—
(A) Corona radiata
(B) Zona pellucida
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above

Answers with Hints
1. (B) When a T cell with a CD8 protein on its surface encounters a MHC protein with a nonself antigen, the CD8 cell is activated to produce a clone of cells called cytotoxic T cells, which are also called T8 or killer cells.
2. (A) There are four characteristic brain wave patterns. Alpha waves are recorded from calm, resting conditions. It disappears entirely during sleep.
3. (D)
4. (A) Hodgkin’s disease is malignancy of lymphocyte tissue, characterized by masses of abnormal lymphocytes.
5. (B) Visual patterns, the shapes of objects and their locations in space are interpreted by right side of the brain. With the right hemisphere humans appreciate the context of an event and recognise the faces of friends and family members.
6. (B) 7. (B)
8. (C) Pituitary Nanism is another term for dwarfism or ateliosis and is due to hyposecretion of somatotrophic hormone.
9. (C) Ferritin is iron storing protein, especially in spleen, liver and bone marrow. The iron is made available when required for haemoglobin synthesis, being transferred by transferrin.
10. (C) Red tide is reddish discolouration of costal surface waters due to concentrations of certain toxin-producing dinoflagellates.
11. (A) Bone is a hard connective tissue that makes up most of the skeleton of vertebrates. The matrix is 30% protein (collagen) and 70% inorganic matter, mainly calcium phosphate.
12. (C) Guineaworm, Hookworm and Tapeworm are endoparasite, while ringworm is a skin disease caused by fungus.
13. (B)
14. (A) Interferons are proteins produced by viral infected body cells and some lymphocytes, often in response to presence of doublestranded RNA in the cell.
15. (B) Capacitation is final stage in maturation of mammalian spermatozoa, without which they cannot engage in fertilization. Substances secreted by the ovary or by the uterine lining, must be encountered for the sperm to undergo the acrosome reaction.
16. (D) Marfan syndrome is autosomal dominant abnormalities of the eyes, cardiovascular system and the skeletal system. Most persons suffering from the disease have myopia, elongated eyeballs, long and narrow extremities (spider fingers) and irregular body proportions.
17. (C) The protoplasm of the fibres of striated muscle, excluding the myofibrils, is called sarcoplasm.
18. (D)
19. (D) Corpus striatum is a structure in the cerebral hemispheres consisting of two basal ganglia (the caudate and lentiform nuclei) and the fibres of the internal capsule that separate them.
20. (C)
21. (C) As a result of nucleic acid digestion, nitrogenous organic acid bases–purines (adenine and guanine) and pyrimidines (cytocine, thymine and uracil) are absorbed from intestine into the blood. In humans, purines are changed into uric acid for excretion.
22. (D) Autonomic nervous system supplies motor nerves to the smooth muscles of the gut and internal organs and to heart muscle. It comprises the sympathetic nervous system, which when stimulated increases heart rate, breathing rate and blood pressure and slows down digestive processes, and the parasympathetic nervous system slows heart rate and promotes digestion.
23. (B) Trophoblast is epithelium, surrounding the mammalian blastocyst, forming outer layer and becoming part of extra embryonic membranes.
24. (B) At high altitudes, the composition of air remains the same as at sea level but the density of air gradually decreases. Therefore, people living at high attitudes are acclimatized to high altitude conditions due to a significant increase in RBC count and haemoglobin content in blood.
25. (D)
26. (C) In humans all teeth, except adult molars, grow twice in life. There are 20 milk teeth in child, that does not include 12 molar teeth.
27. (C) Heloderma is the only poisonous lizard of the world and commonly called gila monster.
28. (C) Wharton’s duct is the duct of the submandibular salivary gland, opening into the mouth at the side of the frenum linguae.
29. (A) The left collecterial gland secretes a soluble milky protein, while the right one secretes watery dihydroxyphenol. Both secretions combine to form a scleroprotein which forms a common egg-case, celled ootheca.
30. (C) Neuromast is one of numerous groups of sensory cells that occur in pits or canals along the lateral line system in fishes.
31. (B) Arteriosclerosis is the disease of arteries in which the wall of arteries become thickened and rigid, and blood flow is hindered.
32. (C) Brush border is the outer surface of columnar epithelial cells living the human intestine.
33. (A) Humans having ‘O’ group blood, have no blood group antigens, but possess both ‘a’ and ‘b’ antibodies.
34. (B)
35. (B) Import is the method which involves taking of food on contact of food. The food passively sinks into the body of Amoeba by rupturing the plasmalemma and ectoplasm at the point of contact.
36. (B) 37. (D)
38. (B) Preganglionic sympathetic fibres are cholinergic and release acetylcholine from its ending when stimulated.
39. (B)
40. (B) Goblets cells are merocrine (epicrine) in nature.
41. (B) 42. (B)
43. (D) Hamstrings are three muscles on the posterior aspect of the thigh, semitendinosus, semimembranous and bicep femoris. They flex the leg, adduct and extend thigh.
44. (B) Electrocardiogram is a record of the electrical activity of the heart, shows certain waves called P, Q, R, S, and T waves. The Pwave is caused by the depolarization of the atrial muscle tissues.
45. (B) Blood poisoning is a common name for an infection of the blood that is also called septicemia or toxemia.
46. (A) Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that stops the action of acetylcholine. It is present in various body tissues.
47. (A)
48. (D) Dartos tunic is the muscular contractile tissue beneath the skin of the scrotum.
49. (A) The bladder wall contains three layers of smooth muscle, which together are called the detrusor muscle. Contraction of the detrusor muscle help expel urine forcefully from the bladder.
50. (B) The morula reaches uterus about 4 to 6 days after fertilization. It is still surrounded by the zona pellucida, that prevents its sticking to the uterine wall.

Scientific Instruments

2010-02-03T21:03:00.001-08:00

Scientific Instruments

Altimeter—An instrument used for measuring altitudes in aircraft.

Ammeter—An instrument for measuring electrical currents in amperes.

Anemometer—An instrument for measuring the force and velocity of wind.

Audiometer—An instrument for measuring the intensity of sound.

Audiophone—An instrument for improving imperfect sense of hearing.

Barometer—An apparatus used for measuring the atmospheric pres-sure. It is of 2 types—Aneroid and Fortin’s Barometer.

Calorimeter—An instrument used for measuring quantities of heat.

Carburettor—An apparatus used in an internal combustion engine for charging air with petrol vapour.

Cardiograph—A medical instrument for tracing heart movements.

Chronometer—An instrument kept on board ships for measuring accurate time.

Cinematography—It contains a series of lenses arranged to throw on screen an enlarged image of photographs.

Crescograph—It was invented by J.C. Bose. It is used for measuring growth in plants.

Dip Circle—An instrument for determining the angle between the direction of the resultant intensity of earth’s field and the horizontal component at a plane. This particular angle is known as the dip of that place.

Drinker’s Apparatus—An instrument used to help breathing in infantile paralysis.

Dynamo—The origin of electricity in a dynamo is the transformation of mechanical energy into electrical energy.

Electrometer—It is an instrument for measuring electricity.

Eudiometer—A glass tube for measuring volume changes in chemical reactions between gases.
Evaporimeter—Cumulative Pan Evaporimeter used to measure water evaporation through sunlights.

Galvanometer—An instrument for measuring electric currents of small magnitude.

Hygroscope—An instrument used to illustrate dynamics of rotating bodies; a type of spinning wheel fixed to the axle.

Hydrometer—An instrument used for measuring the specific gravity of liquids.

Hydrophone—An instrument for recording sound under water.

Hygrometer—An instrument for measuring humidity in air.

Lactometer—It is used for testing the purity of milk.

Manometer—An instrument for determining the pressure of a gas.

Mariner’s compass—An apparatus used by sailors to tell them the direction. The needle always points north south.

Microphone—An instrument for converting sound waves into electrical vibrations and thus to magnify the sound.

Microscope—An instrument used for mangifying minute objects by a lens system.

Odometer—An instrument by which the distance covered by wheeled vehicles is measured.

Phonograph—An instrument for reproducing sound.

Photometer—It is an instrument for measuring the intensity of light; a device for comparing the luminous intensity of sources of light.

Polarimeter—An instrument used for measuring optical activity.

Potentiometer—It is used for comapring electromotive force (e.m.f.) of cells measurement of the thermal e.m.f. large potential differences and currents.

Pyrometer—An instrument for recording high temperatures from a great distance.

Radar—It is an abbreviated form of Radio, Angle, Direction and Range. It is used for detecting the direction and range of an approaching plane by means of radio microwaves.

Rain Gauge—An apparatus for recording rainfall at a particular place.

Radiometer—An instrument for measuring the emission of radiant energy.

Refractometer—An instrument to measure refractive indexes.

Saccharimeter—An instrument for determining the amount of sugar in a solution. It is used in breweries.

Seismometer or Seismograph—An instrument for recording earth-quake shocks.

Sextant—An instrument invented by John Hadley used for measuring the altitude of the sun and other heavenly bodies.

Spectrometer—An instrument for measuring the energy distribution of a particular type of radiation.

Speedometer—An instrument which indicates the speed at which a vehicle is moving.

Spherometer—An instrument for measuring curvature of surfaces.

Stethoscope—An instrument used by physicians to hear and analyse movements of heart and lungs.

Stroboscope—An instrument for viewing objects moving rapidly with a periodic motion and to see them as if they were at rest.

Sunshine Recorder—It is used to record sunshine duration (hrs/day) for growth of crops/plants.

Tachometer—An instrument for determining speeds of aeroplanes and motor-boats.

Teleprinter—An instrument which prints automatically messages sent from one place to another on telegraph lines.

Telstar—It is a space communication satellite developed by Bell for overseas communications. It was launched on July 10, 1962 from Cape Canaveral (U.S.A.). Besides telephone calls, Telstar enables television microwave transmission to be made from and to any country with a transmitting and receiving station.

Telescope—It is an apparatus used for observing distant objects.

Theodollite–An instrument for measuring horizontal and vertical angles.

Thermocouple—An instrument based on thermoelectricity used for measuring temperatures.

Thermometer—An apparatus used for measuring temperature (maxi. and mini.)

Thermometer (Dry and Wet Bulb)—It is used to measure atmospheric humidity.

Thermostat—An instrument used to regulate temperature to a particular degree.

Viscometer—An instrument to measure viscosity.

Wind Vane—An instrument for measuring wind direction, indicated with N,S E,W directions.

General Science Botany Questions

2010-02-03T21:02:00.000-08:00

General Science Botany Questions

1. Match column A (Types of fruits) with column B (Examples) then select the correct answer from the options given below—
Column A
a. Lomentum
b. Samara
c. Achene
d. Amphisacra
Column B
1. Aegle
2. Mirabilis
3. Acacia
4. Acer
a b c d
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 4 2 1

2. Phototropic and geotropic movements in plants have been traced to be linked with—
(A) Auxin
(B) Gibberellin
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Specific enzymes

3. The first case of polyembryony was reported in certain orange seeds by—
(A) Brawn
(B) Nawaschin
(C) Maheswari
(D) None of the above

4. When the change from sol into gel is reversible, the colloid is called—
(A) Gelation
(B) Solation
(C) Suspension
(D) Reversible colloid

5. The nuclear spindle consists of—
(A) One type of fibre
(B) Two types of fibres
(C) Three types of fibres
(D) Four types of fibres

6. Which of the following types of RNA takes a message from DNA in the nucleus to the
ribosomes in the cytoplasm ?
(A) m-RNA
(B) r-RNA
(C) t-RNA
(D) All of the above

7. ‘The imbibition theory of ascent of sap’ was first suggested by—
(A) Strasburger
(B) Bose
(C) Fischer
(D) Sachs

8. The maximum transpiration occurs in—
(A) Mesophytic plants
(B) Hydrophytic plants
(C) Xerophytic plants
(D) All algae except cyanobacteria

9. The transfer of minerals from top soil to subsoil through soil-water is called—
(A) Percolation
(B) Conduction
(C) Leaching
(D) Transpiration

10. One of the important evolutionary features of alternation of generation from algae to
flowering plants is—
(A) Gradual elaboration of sporophyte
(B) Gradual elaboration of gametophyte
(C) Gradual elaboration of both sporophyte and gametophyte
(D) Elimination of sporophyte

11. Circular DNA is found in—
(A) Chloroplasts
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Bacteria
(D) All of the above

12. Which of the following respiratory substrates has the highest value of respiratory quotient ?
(A) Glucose
(B) Protein
(C) Fats
(D) Malic acid

13. Who described mitochondria as bioplast ?
(A) Altmann
(B) Waldayer
(C) Kollikar
(D) Hanstein

14. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding microtubules ?
(A) They are about 200 A° to 270 A° in external diameter having an electron dense wall some 50A° to 70A° thick
(B) They can be considered as the universal components of eukaryotic cells
(C) They are usually found in rotating conditions
(D) All of the above statements are correct

15. The term ‘chromatophore’ was coined by—
(A) Garner and Allard
(B) W. Pfeffer
(C) Nawaschin
(D) Schmitz

16. Phytotron is a device by which—
(A) Plants are grown in controlled environment
(B) Leaf fall occurs on abscission layer
(C) Mutations are produced in plants especially during spores formation
(D) Protons are liberated after photosynthesis

17. Annual (growth) rings are formed by the activity of—
(A) Xylem
(B) Phloem
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) Cambium

18. The chief components of Hill’s reaction used in Blackmann’s reactions are—
(A) ATP and ADP
(B) ATP and NADPH2
(C) NADP and ADP
(D) ATP and NADH2

19. The process of the escape of liquid from the tip of uninjured leaf is called—
(A) Transpiration
(B) Osmosis
(C) Guttation
(D) Evaporation

20. The primitive type of stomata are found in—
(A) Leaves of moss plants
(B) Xerophytic leaves
(C) Apophysis of capsule
(D) Dorsiventral leaves of monocot

21. Long dark periods of short day plants (SDPs), if interrupted by a brief exposure of red light (660 μ) the flowering is—
(A) Inhibited
(B) Vigorous
(C) Promoted
(D) None of the above

22. Number of chromatids per chromosome complex at metaphase is—
(A) Two in mitosis and one in meiosis
(B) Two in mitosis and four in meiosis
(C) Four in mitosis and two in meiosis
(D) Two in both mitosis and meiosis

23. The dark staining region in a chromosome is called—
(A) Euchromatin
(B) Heterochromatin
(C) Paracentric
(D) Pericentric

24. Plastids are not found in—
(A) Gram positive bacteria
(B) Gram negative bacteria
(C) Fungi
(D) All of the above

25. Bacterial nucleoid consists of—
(A) One double-stranded DNA
(B) Two double-stranded DNA
(C) Two single-stranded DNA
(D) One single-stranded DNA

26. The number of chromosomes in Pinus pollen grain in 12, the number of chromosomes in the endosperm of its own is—
(A) 6
(B) 12
(C) 24
(D) 36

27. During protein synthesis in prokaryotes, the initiation of polypeptide chain is induced
by—
(A) Serine
(B) Lysine
(C) Methionine
(D) Leucine

28. In Oxalis, the flowers open in the morning and close during evening because of—
(A) Phototropism
(B) Phototaxis
(C) Photonasty
(D) Nyctinasty

29. Conjoint, collateral, open and endarch vascular bundles are found in—
(A) Dicot root
(B) Dicot stem
(C) Monocot root
(D) Monocot stem

30. Spraying of DDT produces pollution of—
(A) Air only
(B) Airal water
(C) Air and soil
(D) Air, water and soil

31. The ‘first codon’ discovered by Nirenberg and Matthaei was—
(A) AAU
(B) GGG
(C) CCC
(D) UUU

32. The smallest unit of genetic material capable of undergoing mutation is—
(A) Cistron
(B) Muton
(C) Recon
(D) Proton

33. The least number of t RNA molecules for each of the twenty amino acids found in
protein is—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

34. Which of the following, plants is commonly known as ‘redwood’ ?
(A) Sequoia sempervirens
(B) Dacridium laxifolium
(C) Sequoia giganteum
(D) Polygalia hirsute

35. Epidermal tissue forms the outer protective covering of a herbaceous plant. It is modified in—
(A) Leaves
(B) Stems
(C) Roots
(D) All of the above

36. PCR based markers have been developed to—
(A) Create terminate codon
(B) Manufacture antibiotics
(C) Differentiate different biotypes of gall midge
(D) Obtain soil micro-organisms with the help of specific enzyme—reductase

37. The function of a root cap is to—
(A) Produce embryonic cell
(B) Protect the root apical meristem from damage
(C) Absorb minerals
(D) Absorb water

38. In a certain dicotyledonous stem the vascular cambium is a meristematic tissue referred to as—
(A) Apical
(B) Lateral
(C) Intercalary
(D) Secondary

39. In the phosphorus cycle, weathering makes phosphate available first to—
(A) Producers
(B) Consumers
(C) Tertiary consumers
(D) Decomposers

40. Petaloid staminode is seen in genus—
(A) Cassia
(B) Canna
(C) Solanum
(D) All of the above

41. A recessive pair of alleles at one locus sometimes prevents the expression of a dominant allele at another locus. This expression is termed as—
(A) Pleiotropy
(B) Polygenic inheritance
(C) Complementary gene
(D) Epistasis

42. Floridean starch is found in—
(A) Cyanophyceae
(B) Chlorophyceae
(C) Myxophyceae
(D) Rhodophyceae

43. Feathery stigma is present in—
(A) Ceasalpinia
(B) Pisum sativum
(C) Datura stramonium
(D) Triticum aestivum

44. Maximum transpiration occurs through/ from—
(A) Ground tissue of scale leaf
(B) Protoderm and procambium
(C) Periderm and lenticels
(D) Dermal tissue

45. Separation of components of a mixture based on their differential movements is called—
(A) Plasmolysis
(B) Dialysis
(C) Osmosis
(D) Chromatography

46. The free energy in breaking down of glucose into CO2 and H2O is—
(A) Negative and exergonic
(B) Positive and exergonic
(C) Negative and endergonic
(D) Positive and endergonic

47. A pome fruit is said to be false because—
(A) The fruit is present in fleshy edible thalamus
(B) The endocarp is cartilaginous
(C) The pericarp is inconspicuous
(D) The fruit is derived from inferior ovary

48. If mendel had studied the 7 traits using a plant with 12 chromosomes instead of 14 in what way would the interpretations have been different ?
(A) He would not have discovered the law of independent assortment
(B) He would have mapped the chromosome
(C) He would have discovered blending o r incomplete dominance
(D) He would have discovered sex linkage

49. Enzymes are absent in—
(A) Fungi
(B) Cyanobacteria
(C) Viruses
(D) Algae

50. Length of one turn of the helix in a B-form
DNA is approximately—
(A) 2 nm
(B) 20 nm
(C) 0•34 nm
(D) 3•4 nm

Answers with Explanation
1. (D)
2. (A) Auxin’s concentration toward nonilluminated side is greater than illuminated side. Thus, it shows phototropism. Auxin also shows geotropism in seed-ling, where due to gravitation it accumulates in the lower region of plumule or shoot.
3. (D) The first case of polyembryony was reported in certain orange seeds by Antoni Van Leeuwenhoek.
4. (D) The sol, under certain conditions, may change into another form called gel, the process being called gelation. When a gel is converted into sol, the process is called solation. When the change from sol into gel is reversible the colloid is called reversible.
5. (C) Nuclear spindle consists of three types of fibres—interzonal, continuous and discontinuous.
6. (A) m-RNA carries a message from DNA in the nucleus to the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
7. (C) The imbibition theory of ascent of sap was first suggested by R. A. Fischer and supported by Sachs.
8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (A) 11. (D)
12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D)
15. (D) The electron microscopic studies have revealed that in photosynthetic bacteria and blue-green algae some distinct lamellar structures meant for photosynthesis occur in protoplasm. These pigmented lamellae are named as chromatophores by Schmitz (1882).
16. (A) Phytotron—In glasshouses (green houses) when plants are kept on artificial light and temperature, the method is called phytotron and is applicable in tissue culture, horticulture and agriculture.
17. (D) The activity of cambium is often periodical, and as a result, distinct growth layers are formed in the xylem. In transverse view these growth layers appear as rings, and hence are referred to as growth rings or annual rings.
18. (B) The assimilatory power i.e., NADPH2 and ATP are formed in light or Hill’s reaction. They are utilized in the dark reaction or Blackmann’s reaction of photosynthesis in reducing CO2 to carbohydrates.
19. (C)
20. (C) In the stomata of apophysis of capsule only stomatal pores are reported (i.e., without guard cells). Guard-cell-lacking stomata are said to be primitive.
21. (A) 22. (B)
23. (B) Heterochromatin is a dark staining region which contains genetically inert or late replicating genes.
24. (D) 25. (A)
26. (B) Pinus is a member of gymnosperms and its endosperm develops before fertilization. Hence it is haploid and, therefore, there will be no change in its chromosome number.
27. (C) In protein synthesis of prokaryotes, the initiation of polypeptide chain is always brought about by an amino acid, methionine, which is coded by AUG.
28. (C) Photonasty or light-induced opening and closing of flower is seen in Oxalis.
29. (B) 30. (D) 31. (D)
32. (B) Muton is a unit of mutation.
33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (D)
36. (C) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) based markers have been developed to differentiate different biotypes of gall midge.
37. (B)
38. (B) Lateral meristems are present along the lateral sides of stem and roots. Interstelar
cambium ring formed by intrafascicular, interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are
examples of lateral meristem.
39. (A)
40. (B) Canna belongs to family Cannaceae. Petaloid staminode is characteristic of this family.
41. (D)
42. (D) Floridean starch is a reserve food material of algal class-Rhodophyceae.
43. (D) Wheat (Triticum aestivum) belongs to family Gramineae (Poaceae) which has characteristic Feathery stigma.
44. (D) 45. (D) 46. (A) 47. (A) 48. (A)
49. (C) Viruses are metabolically inactive outside the host cell because they lack their own enzyme systems and protein synthesis machinery.
50. (D) The length of one turn of the helix in a Bform DNA is approximately 3•4 nm. The nucleotides are set in the planes at the right angles to the axis of the helix and spaced at an intervals of 3•4 A° or 0•34 nm.

General Science Biology Questions

2010-02-03T21:00:00.000-08:00

General Science Biology Questions

1. Which of the following is a ‘club moss’ ?
(A) Selaginella
(B) Equisetum
(C) Lycopodium
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

2. Raphe in Marsilea is present in—
(A) Female gametophyte
(B) Sporocarp
(C) Sporophyte
(D) Male gametophyte
Ans : (B)

3. The stele type occurring in Marsilea is—
(A) Solenostele
(B) Protostele
(C) Amphiphloic Siphonostele
(D) All of these
Ans : (C)

4. The morphological nature of rhizophore of Selaginella is—
(A) Root like
(B) Stem like
(C) Both root and stem like
(D) Rhizoid like
Ans : (C)

5. The Selaginella shows—
(A) Large and small leaves arranged spirally
(B) All leaves large
(C) All leaves small
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

6. The anatomy of Pinus needle reflects the features of a—
(A) Mesophyte
(B) Xerophyte
(C) Hydrophyte
(D) Epiphyte
Ans : (B)

7. Girdling leaf traces are the characteristic feature of the stem of—
(A) Cycas
(B) Pinus
(C) Ephedra
(D) Gnetum
Ans : (A)

8. Pinus is a—
(A) Tree
(B) Shrub
(C) Herb
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

9. The recent era is—
(A) Cenozoic
(B) Mesozoic
(C) Proterozoic
(D) Archeozoic
Ans : (A)

10. Fossils are found in—
(A) Igneous rocks
(B) Quartz
(C) Soil
(D) Sedimentary rocks
Ans : (D)

11. Reserve food material in fungi is—
(A) Glycogen
(B) Starch
(C) Sucrose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)

12. Which is rootless fern ?
(A) Pteris
(B) Dryopteris
(C) Salvinia
(D) Adiantum
Ans : (C)

13. Which is common between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration ?
(A) Similar substrate
(B) Glycolysis
(C) Pyruvic acid
(D) All of these
Ans : (B)

14. Turpentine oil is obtained from—
(A) Coal
(B) Petroleum
(C) Cedarwood
(D) Pinus
Ans : (D)

15. Which alga was used by Calvin and his co-workers in their experiments of photosynthesis ?
(A) Chlamydomonas
(B) Chlorella
(C) Chara
(D) Volvox
Ans : (B)

16. Which is an oilseed crop ?
(A) Marigold
(B) Chrysanthemum
(C) Rose
(D) Sunflower
Ans : (D)

17. The first transgenic plant used for commercial production was—
(A) Cotton
(B) Tomato
(C) Tobacco
(D) Rice
Ans : (B)

18. Rare hybrid plants can be saved by—
(A) Pollen culture
(B) Embryo culture
(C) Protoplast culture
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

19. Which is not a category ?
(A) Ecotype
(B) Species
(C) Genus
(D) Order
Ans : (A)

20. Linnaeus published his concept of binomial nomenclature first in—
(A) Systema Naturae
(B) Species Plantarum
(C) Genera Plantarum
(D) Philosophia Botanica
Ans : (B)

21. When chlorophyll is burnt which element is obtained ?
(A) Ca
(B) Na
(C) Mg
(D) Mn
Ans : (C)

22. Iron deficiency results in—
(A) Leaf tip necrosis
(B) Small leaves disease
(C) Decreased protein synthesis
(D) Intervenal chlorosis appearing first in young leaves
Ans : (D)

23. A phytohormone is—
(A) Naturally produced
(B) Synthetic substance
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

24. During the seismonastic movement in Mimosa pudica turgor changes occur in—
(A) Leaflets
(B) Stipules
(C) Pulvinus leaf base
(D) Petiole and stem
Ans : (C)

25. Evergeen trees remain green through the year on account of—
(A) Cold climate
(B) Absence of leaf fall
(C) Leaves falling in small number interval
(D) Supply of moisture throughout year
Ans : (C)

26. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is—
(A) 15 : 1
(B) 3 : 1
(C) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
(D) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1
Ans : (C)

27. The damaged ozone layer is situated in—
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Mesosphere
(C) Stratosphere
(D) Troposphere
Ans : (C)

28. Which one of the following is ordinarily not an air pollutant ?
(A) CO2
(B) CO
(C) SO2
(D) Hydrocarbon
Ans : (A)

29. Genes are made by—
(A) Histones
(B) Lipoproteins
(C) Hydrocarbons
(D) Polynucleotides
Ans : (D)

30. The term ‘ecosystem’ was proposed by—
(A) Odum
(B) Tansley
(C) Whitker
(D) Goli
Ans : (B)

31. The first juvenile larva of Ascaris is known as—
(A) Filiform larva
(B) Rhabditiform larva
(C) Miracidium larva
(D) Microfilariae
Ans : (B)

32. Chromosomes contain—
(A) Protein only
(B) DNA and protein
(C) DNA, RNA and histone
(D) DNA, RNA, histone and non-histone proteins
Ans : (B)

33. Which are phagocytes in liver ?
(A) Kupffer cells
(B) Aciner cells
(C) Diter cells
(D) Hensen's cells
Ans : (A)

34. Termites digest wood with the help of an enzyme secreted by the—
(A) Salivary glands
(B) Cells in the midgut
(C) Symbiotic protozoa
(D) Bacteria and fungi outside the body
Ans : (C)

35. In honeybee colony the drones are produced by—
(A) Fertilized eggs
(B) Unfertilized eggs
(C) Larvae fed upon leaves
(D) Fasting larvae
Ans : (B)

36. Jacobson's organ is concerned with—
(A) Smell
(B) Burrowing
(C) Touch
(D) Vision
Ans : (A)

37. Body organisation in Hydra is of—
(A) Tissue grade
(B) Organ grade
(C) Cellular grade
(D) Organ system grade
Ans : (A)

38. Leech obtains continuous blood flow from its victim by pouring in it—
(A) Heparin
(B) Hirudin
(C) Insulin
(D) Pepsin
Ans : (B)

39. Spicules of Sponges are formed by—
(A) Procytes
(B) Pinacocytes
(C) Scleroblasts
(D) Thesocytes
Ans : (B)

40. Heterocoelous centrum is a characteristics of—
(A) Amphibia
(B) Reptilia
(C) Birds
(D) Mammalia
Ans : (C)

41. The exclusively sedentary protochordate animals are found in the class—
(A) Pterobranchia
(B) Larvacea
(C) Ascidiacea
(D) Thaliacea
Ans : (A)

42. Cytopyge is found in—
(A) Paramecium
(B) Entamoeba
(C) Amoeba
(D) Trypanosoma
Ans : (A)

43. Littoral form of animals is found—
(A) In fresh water
(B) In sea water near the shore
(C) In deep sea
(D) At the bottom of the sea
Ans : (D)

44. Bladder worm is a larva of—
(A) Obelia
(B) Silkmoth
(C) Taenia
(D) Nereis
Ans : (C)

45. Which of the following secretions associated with digestion does not have enzymes ?
(A) Bile
(B) Gastric juice
(C) Saliva
(D) Pancreatic juice
Ans : (A)

46. Yellow fever is transmitted by—
(A) Female Culex
(B) Female Anopheles
(C) Female Aedes
(D) Housefly
Ans : (C)

47. The covering membrane of the vacuole is known as—
(A) Tonoplast
(B) Cell wall
(C) Plasma layer
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

48. Age of fishes was known as—
(A) Devonian
(B) Ordovician
(C) Crustaceous
(D) Silurian
Ans : (A)

49. ‘Quartan malaria’ is caused by—
(A) Plasmodium vivax
(B) Plasmodium malariae
(C) Plasmodium ovale
(D) Plasmodium falciparum
Ans : (B)

50. The word ‘species’ was coined by—
(A) John Ray
(B) Mayer
(C) J. Huxley
(D) C. Linnaeus
Ans : (A)

51. An embryo of chick with 7 pairs of somites is—
(A) 20 hours old
(B) 22 hours old
(C) 24 hours old
(D) 18 hours old
Ans : (C)

52. In the mammals, cleavage result formation of solid mass of cells known—
(A) Blastula
(B) Gastrula
(C) Morula
(D) Neurula
Ans : (C)

53. F1particles are found in—
(A) Lysosome
(B) Mitochondria
(C) Golgi Body
(D) Endoplasmic reticulum
Ans : (B)

54. The name ‘polytene chromosome’ suggested by—
(A) E.G. Balbiani
(B) Kollar
(C) Heitz
(D) Bauer
Ans : (A)

55. Centriole is found in—
(A) Animal cells
(B) Red algae
(C) Prokaryotes
(D) Flowering plants
Ans : (A)

56. The first phylum of animal kingdom exhibiting bilateral symmetry is—
(A) Arthropoda
(B) Annelida
(C) Mollusca
(D) Platyhelminthes
Ans : (D)

57. The fresh water sponge is—
(A) Spongella
(B) Grantia
(C) Euplectella
(D) Euspongia
Ans : (A)

58. Flame cells are related with—
(A) Excretory system
(B) Digestive system
(C) Circulatory system
(D) Respiratory system
Ans : (A)

59. The intermediate host in the life cycle of F. hepatica (Liver fluke) is—
(A) Sheep
(B) Snail
(C) Man
(D) Bird
Ans : (B)

60. Vitelline membrane is found in—
(A) Birds
(B) Tunicates
(C) Fishes
(D) Mammals
Ans : (A)

61. Two-pigment system theory of photosynthesis was proposed by—
(A) Hill Emerson
(B) Emerson
(C) Blackmann
(D) Hatch and Slack
Ans : (B)

62. Photosynthetic pigments in chloroplast are embedded in membrane of—
(A) Thylakoids
(B) Photoglobin
(C) Matrix
(D) Envelope of chloroplast
Ans : (A)

63. The rate of photosynthesis is maximum in—
(A) Green light
(B) Blue light
(C) Red light
(D) White light
Ans : (C)

64. All energy is trapped in pigment system-1 in—
(A) ATP
(B) Carbohydrate
(C) NADH2
(D) P-700
Ans : (D)

65. How many ATP molecules are produced, as a net gain, during the complete breakdown of glucose ?
(A) 36
(B) 28
(C) 12
(D) 18
Ans : (A)

66. Father of taxonomy is—
(A) De Candolle
(B) Hooker
(C) Linnaeus
(D) Aristotle
Ans : (C)

67. For entry in gene pool, a mutation occur in—
(A) Somatic cells
(B) Germ cells
(C) Plasma proteins
(D) Somatic DNA
Ans : (B)

68. Vessels diffier from tracheids—
(A) In being living
(B) In being derived from a single cell
(C) In having vertical row of cells and their cross wall dissolved
(D) Because they conduct water
Ans : (C)

69. Which one is true nut ?
(A) Walnut
(B) Cashewnut
(C) Groundnut
(D) Coconut
Ans : (B)

70. After transcription, the mRNA molecule—
(A) Disintegrates
(B) Moves into cytoplasm
(C) Replicates itself
(D) Reassociates to form its structure
Ans : (B)

71. Fossilization is also known by the—
(A) Acclimatzation
(B) Pasteurization
(C) Preservation
(D) Tyndallization
Ans : (C)

72. The branch that deals with the plants studies in the geological past is called—
(A) Pteridology
(B) Palaeobotany
(C) Neurology
(D) Archaeology
Ans : (B)

73. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaeobotany is situated at—
(A) Allahabad
(B) Delhi
(C) Mumbai
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (D)

74. In plants, largest egg is found in—
(A) Cycas
(B) Sequoia
(C) Pinus
(D) Selaginella
Ans : (A)

75. Which one of the following is an example of symbiosis ?
(A) Utricularia
(B) Agaricus
(C) Lichen
(D) Mango
Ans : (C)

76. Which of the following pteridophytes is known as ‘Horse-tail’ ?
(A) Rhynia
(B) Selaginella
(C) Equisetum
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

77. Marsilea is a—
(A) Homosporic pteridophyte
(B) Heterosporic pteridophyte
(C) Non-sporic pteridophyte
(D) Seeded pteridophyte
Ans : (B)

78. A plant bearing two types of spores is termed as—
(A) Heterospory
(B) Seed habit
(C) Homospory
(D) All of these
Ans : (A)

79. In Pinus present only—
(A) Male cone
(B) Female cone
(C) Male and female cones
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

80. Number of cotyledons found in the embryo of Cycas is—
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 1
Ans : (B)

81. Bryophytes are—
(A) Aquatic
(B) Terrestrial
(C) Amphibious
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

82. Sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte in—
(A) Algae
(B) Pteridophyta
(C) Fungi
(D) Bryophyta
Ans : (D)

83. In gametophytic phase of Bryophyta the last cell is—
(A) Gamete
(B) Spore
(C) Elater
(D) Zygote
Ans : (A)

84. In Funaria, the calyptra is formed by—
(A) Antheridium
(B) Columella
(C) Capsule
(D) Archegonium
Ans : (D)

85. A bryophyte differes from pteridophyte in—
(A) Archegonia
(B) Lack of vascular tissue
(C) Independent gametophyte
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

86. Acid rain is mainly a mixture of—
(A) Sulphuric acid and nitric acid
(B) Hexane and methane
(C) Acetic acid and bromine
(D) Ascorbic acid and citric acid
Ans : (A)

87. Ribosomes are sites for—
(A) Protein synthesis
(B) Photosynthesis
(C) Fat synthesis
(D) Respiration
Ans : (A)

88. Pyramid of energy is—
(A) Alwayss inverted
(B) Always upright
(C) Sometimes inverted and sometimes upright
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)

89. ATP is—
(A) An enzyme which brings about oxidation
(B) A hormone
(C) A molecule with high energy phosphate bond
(D) A protein
Ans : (C)

90. Which one of the following is not a feature of prokaryotic cell ?
(A) Absence of nuclear membrane and the nucleus
(B) Absence of cell organelles
(C) Absence of genetic material
(D) Absence of histone protein in the chromosome
Ans : (C)

91. Which one of the following is highly dangerous radioactive pollutant ?
(A) Phosphorus-32
(B) Sulphur-35
(C) Strontium-90
(D) Calcium-40
Ans : (C)

92. The indicator of SO2 pollution of air is—
(A) Lichen
(B) Fern
(C) Black mould
(D) Moss
Ans : (A)

93. The founder of cell theory was—
(A) Wolf
(B) Rudolf Virchow
(C) Myen, Von Moll and Raspail
(D) Schleiden and Schwann
Ans : (D)

94. Fats in our body are formed when—
(A) There is little glycogen in the body
(B) Blood sugar level becomes constant
(C) Glycogen storage in liver and muscles is completed
(D) Intake of protein is high
Ans : (C)

95. Liver performs several functions. One of these functions is—
(A) Histolysis
(B) Digestion of proteins
(C) Glycogenesis
(D) Maintaining salt balance
Ans : (C)

96. Poison fangs of snakes are—
(A) Maxillary teeth
(B) Specialized structures
(C) Premaxillary teeth
(D) Vomerine teeth
Ans : (A)

97. Wings of butterfly, bird and bat are—
(A) Homologous organs
(B) Analogous organs
(C) Unrelated organs
(D) Vestigeal organs
Ans : (B)

98. ‘Ozone Day’ is observed on—
(A) January, 30
(B) April, 21
(C) September, 16
(D) December, 5
Ans : (C)

99. Which one of the following is the link between Annelida and Mollusca ?
(A) Archaeopteryx
(B) Peripatus
(C) Neopilina
(D) Coelacanth
Ans : (C)

100. The heartbeat is regulated by—
(A) Pacemaker
(B) Vagus nerve
(C) Sympathetic nerve
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)

101. Which pair is correct ?
(A) Microlecithal eggs — Dipnoi
(B) Homolecithal eggs — Amphibia
(C) Mesolecithal eggs — Bird
(D) Centrolecithal eggs — Insect
Ans : (D)

102. The hypothesis of ‘Coupling and Repulsion’ for linkage was formulated by—
(A) Sutton and Boveri
(B) Bateson & Punnet
(C) T.H. Morgan
(D) W. Sutton
Ans : (B)

103. Balanoglossus is commonly known as—
(A) Earthworm
(B) Tapeworm
(C) Corn worm
(D) Tongue worm
Ans : (D)

104. In Drosophila, sex determination depends on—
(A) Y-chromosome
(B) X-chromosome
(C) Autosome
(D) X-chromosome & autosome both
Ans : (D)

105. Nonsense codons are—
(A) AUG, AAU, UAG
(B) GGU, AGU, AUG
(C) UAG, UAA, UGA
(D) GAU, AAU, GUA
Ans : (C)

106. In which stage does centromere divide in two ?
(A) Metaphase-I
(B) Prophase-I
(C) Metaphase-II
(D) Anaphase-II
Ans : (D)

107. Which animal is egg laying mammal ?
(A) Didelphys
(B) Macropus
(C) Pteropus
(D) Tachyglossus
Ans : (D)

108. An oil producing gland on the tail of bird is known as—
(A) Preen gland
(B) Mucus gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Sebaceous gland
Ans : (A)

109. A snake that is viviparous is—
(A) The Russell’s pitless viper
(B) The pit viper
(C) Rattle snake
(D) Kraits
Ans : (B)

110. A gland which is found on undersurface of the thighs of male lizard ?
(A) Sudorific gland
(B) Femoral gland
(C) Green gland
(D) Stink gland
Ans : (B)

111. Which of the following is not a path flagellate ?
(A) Leishmania
(B) Giardia
(C) Trypanosoma
(D) Noctiluca
Ans : (D)

112. The Glochidium larva of Unio—
(A) Is free swimming
(B) Is ectoparasite on fish
(C) Is endoparasite on fish
(D) Lives in bottom
Ans : (B)

113. The term ‘Plasmalemma’ was given by—
(A) C. Nageli & C. Cramer
(B) J.Q. Plowe
(C) Dancilli & Davson
(D) Robertson
Ans : (B)

114. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum performs—
1. Synthesis of lipids
2. Glycogenolysis
3. Sterol metabolism
4. Detoxification
Codes :
(A) Only 4 is correct
(B) 1 and 2 both are correct
(C) 2 and 3 both are correct
(D) All are correct
Ans : (D)

115. The innermost layer of egg albumen in birds is called—
(A) Inner thin albumen
(B) Vitelline membrane
(C) Dense alburmen
(D) Chalaziferous layer
Ans : (B)

116. In which one of the following is the anus absent ?
(A) Leech
(B) Roundworm
(C) Earthworm
(D) Flatworm
Ans : (D)

117. Which type of jaw suspension is found in mammals ?
(A) Autostylic
(B) Holostylic
(C) Craniostylic
(D) Hyostylic
Ans : (A)

118. Synthesis of urea in liver takes place by—
(A) Nitrogen cycle
(B) Krebs’ cycle
(C) Glycolysis
(D) Ornithine cycle
Ans : (D)

119. Sexual dimorphism is found in—
(A) Hydra
(B) Earthworm
(C) Ascaris
(D) Fasciola
Ans : (B)

120. Which of the following animals has a nervous system but no brain ?
(A) Amoeba
(B) Hydra
(C) Cockroach
(D) Earthworm
Ans : (B)

121. Aristotle’s Lantern occurs in—
(A) Asteroidea
(B) Echinoidea
(C) Holothuroidea
(D) Crinoidea
Ans : (B)

122. Neoteny is observed in—
(A) Ambystoma
(B) Alytes
(C) Sycon
(D) Sacculina
Ans : (A)

123. Kidneys are vital organs of the body because they help in—
(A) Regulation of body fluids
(B) Regulation of acid-base balance
(C) Removal of metabolic wastes
(D) All of these functions
Ans : (D)

124. The infective stage of malarial parasite is—
(A) Trophozoite
(B) Merozoite
(C) Sporozoite
(D) Cyst
Ans : (C)

125. Parasitic castration occurs in—
(A) Fasciola
(B) Nereis
(C) Sacculina
(D) Palaemon
Ans : (C)

1. Stem is modified into cladode :
(A) Casuarina
(B) Asparagus
(C) Opuntia
(D) Euphorbia

2. Verticillaster type of inflorescence is found in :
(A) Cotton
(B) Datura
(C) Lilium
(D) Ocimum

3. A simple one seeded fruit in which pericarp is fused with seed coat is :
(A) Achene
(B) Caryopsis
(C) Cypsela
(D) Nut

4. The portion of DNA which contains information for an entire polypeptide is called :
(A) Cistron
(B) Muton
(C) Recon
(D) Operon

5. Bicarpellary, syncarpous ovary with axile placentation is seen in :
(A) Solanaceae
(B) Caesalpinaceae
(C) Asteraceae
(D) Malvaceae

6. Alburnum is also called :
(A) Autumn wood
(B) Heart wood
(C) Sap wood
(D) Spring wood

7. The entry of pollen tube into the ovule through micropyle is called :
(A) Porogamy
(B) Mesogamy
(C) Anisogamy
(D) Chalazogamy

8. Type of pollination in Commelina is :
(A) Chasmogamy
(B) Geitonogamy
(C) Xenogamy
(D) Cleistogamy

9. The process of embryo formation without fertilization is known as :
(A) Apospory
(B) Apogamy
(C) Parthenocarpy
(D) Polyembryony

10. Which of the process Cholodny-Went theory is concerned with ?
(A) Photomorphogenesis
(B) Photoperiodism
(C) Phototropism
(D) Photorespiration

11. The hormone present in the liquid endosperm of coconut is :
(A) Cytokinin
(B) Gibberellin
(C) Ethylene
(D) Auxin

12. The phytohormone which influences apical dominance growth is :
(A) IAA
(B) ABA
(C) GA3
(D) C2H4

13. An example of short day plant is :
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Chrysanthemum
(D) Radish

14. The ovary after fertilization is converted into :
(A) Embryo
(B) Endosperm
(C) Fruit
(D) Seed

15. The molecular formula of Chlorophyll ‘a’ is :
(A) C55H72O5N4Mg
(B) C55H70O5N4Mg
(C) C55H72O6N4Mg
(D) C50H72O5N4Mg

16. The first compound that accepts CO2 during dark phase is :
(A) NADP
(B) Ferrodoxin
(C) RUBP
(D) Cytochrome

17. Initiation codon for methionine is :
(A) AAA
(B) UUU
(C) UAA
(D) AUG

18. The deficiency of this micronutrient results in little leaf disease :
(A) Copper
(B) Zinc
(C) Boron
(D) Iron

19. Kranz anatomy is a morphological diversity in the leaves of :
(A) C3-plants
(B) C4-plants
(C) C3 and C4-plants
(D) CAM plants

20. Prechilling treatment to break seed dormancy is :
(A) Scarification
(B) Stratification
(C) Impaction
(D) Vernalization

21. The pyruvic acid formed during glycolysis is oxidized to CO2 and H2O in a cycle called :
(A) Calvin cycle
(B) Nitrogen cycle
(C) Hill reaction
(D) Krebs cycle

22. Respiratory quotient (RQ) is one in case of :
(A) Fatty acids
(B) Nucleic acids
(C) Carbohydrates
(D) Organic acids

23. An example of free living nitrogen fixing aerobic bacteria is :
(A) Clostridium
(B) Rhizobium
(C) Azotobacter
(D) Rhodospirillum

24. Identify the plant belonging to the Reed-Swamp stage in hydrarch succession :
(A) Juncus
(B) Sagittaria
(C) Salix
(D) Trapa

25. A gas produced by paddy fields and connected with global warming is :
(A) CO2
(B) Chlorine
(C) H2S
(D) Methane

26. If the strong partner is benefited and the weak partner is damaged, it is known as :
(A) Predation
(B) Allelopathy
(C) Symbiosis
(D) Commensalism

27. Acid rain is mainly caused due to increase in the levels of the gas(es) :
(A) SO2 only
(B) CO2 only
(C) SO2, CO2
(D) NO2 and SO2

28. The flow of energy among various trophic levels of an ecosystem is :
(A) Unidirectional
(B) Bidirectional
(C) Multidirectional
(D) Circular

29. Increase in atmospheric temperature due to CO2 is called :
(A) Pasteur effect
(B) Green-house effect
(C) Blackman effect
(D) Emerson effect

30. The protective-ozone layer is present in :
(A) Ionosphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Troposphere
(D) Lithosphere

31. Decomposition of organic matter is brought about by :
(A) Protozoa
(B) Plants
(C) Micro-organisms
(D) None of these

32. The smallest taxon is called :
(A) Class
(B) Order
(C) Genus
(D) Species

33. Which one of the following is the first National Park in India ?
(A) Kanha National Park
(B) Periyar National Park
(C) Corbett National Park
(D) Bandipur National Park

34. Which one of the following is having ssRNA ?
(A) TMV
(B) T2-bacteriophage
(C) Polio Virus
(D) CMV

35. In Whittaker’s system of classification, prokaryotes are placed in the kingdom :
(A) Protista
(B) Monera
(C) Plantae
(D) Animalia

36. Virus consists of :
(A) Nucleic acid and protein
(B) Nucleic acid
(C) Orotein
(D) None of these

37. This substance is present in the cell walls of Gram Positive bacteria only :
(A) Peptidoglycan
(B) Lipopolysaccharides
(C) Teichoic acids
(D) None of these

38. Highest degree of polymorphism is found in :
(A) Protozoa
(B) Cnidaria
(C) Platyhelminthes
(D) Arthropoda

39. Sea mouse belongs to phylum :
(A) Mollusca
(B) Cnidaria
(C) Arthropoda
(D) Annelida

40. One of the following animal belongs to Cyclostomata :
(A) Channa
(B) Loris
(C) Dodo
(D) Petromyzon

41. An egg laying mammal is :
(A) Delphinus
(B) Macaca
(C) Ornithorhynchus
(D) Macropus

42. In sharks, one of the following is absent :
(A) Claspers
(B) Placoid scales
(C) Cartilaginous endoskeleton
(D) Air bladder

43. The devil fish and sea hare are :
(A) Molluscs
(B) Crustaceans
(C) Coelenterates
(D) Marine fish and mammal

44. Endothelium of blood vessels is made up of :
(A) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(B) Simple squamous epithelium
(C) Simple columnar epithelium
(D) Simple non-ciliated columnar

45. In humans, sphincter of Oddi is associated with the opening of :
(A) Common hepatopancreatic duct
(B) Pyloric stomach
(C) Oesophagus
(D) Colon

46. In human beings, the duration of cardiac cycle is :
(A) 0•08 second
(B) 0•5 second
(C) 0•8 second
(D) 8•0 second

47. In which part of nephron, reabsorption is minimum from filtrate ?
(A) Henle’s loop
(B) Proximal convoluted tubule
(C) Distal convoluted tubule
(D) Collecting duct

48. Which hormone level reaches peak during luteal phase of menstrual cycle ?
(A) Luteinizing hormone
(B) Progesterone
(C) Follicle stimulating hormone
(D) Estrogen

49. The largest subunit of prokaryotic ribosomes is :
(A) 30S
(B) 40S
(C) 50S
(D) 60S

50. Which of the following is a part of endomembrane system of eukaryotic cell ?
(A) Peroxisomes
(B) Chloroplasts
(C) Mitochondria
(D) Golgi complexes

51. Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals is called as :
(A) Gout
(B) Myasthenia gravis
(C) Osteoporosis
(D) Osteomalacia

52. Chromosomes are visible with chromatids at this phase of mitosis :
(A) Interphase
(B) Prophase
(C) Metaphase
(D) Anaphase

53. Inheritance of ABO blood grouping is an example of :
(A) Dominance
(B) Codominance
(C) Incomplete dominance
(D) All of these

54. In a dihybrid cross between RRYY and rryy parents, the number of RrYy genotypes in F2 generation will be :
(A) 4
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 1

55. Identify a 47, + 21 disorder from the following :
(A) Down’s syndrome
(B) Turner’s syndrome
(C) Phenylketonuria
(D) Klinefelter’s syndrome

56. Uracil is present in RNA at the place of :
(A) Adenine
(B) Guanine
(C) Cytosine
(D) Thymine

57. Copying genetic information from one strand of DNA into RNA is :
(A) Translation
(B) Transcription
(C) Transformation
(D) Transduction

58. S. L. Miller’s closed flask contained :
(A) CH4
(B) H2
(C) NH3 and Water vapour
(D) All of these

59. Change of frequency of alleles in a population results in evolution is proposed in :
(A) Darwin’s theory
(B) Lamarck’s theory
(C) Hardy-Weinberg principle
(D) De Vries theory

60. One of the following is the vestigial organ in human beings :
(A) Nictitating membrane
(B) Spleen
(C) Femur
(D) Tibia

61. The golden age of reptiles is :
(A) Cenozoic era
(B) Palaeozoic era
(C) Mesozoic era
(D) Silurian period

62. The theory of use and disuse of organ was proposed by :
(A) Darwin
(B) Lamarck
(C) De Vries
(D) Hooker

63. One of the following theories were proposed by Weissman :
(A) Law of inheritance
(B) Theory of inheritance of acquired characters
(C) Theory of natural selection
(D) Theory of germplasm

64. Ontogeny recapitulates phylogeny—
this theory is called :
(A) Biogenetic law
(B) Law of embryology
(C) Law of acquired characters
(D) Law of Bridges

65. The brain capacity of Homoerectus is :
(A) 800 cc
(B) 900 cc
(C) 1200 cc
(D) 1400 cc

66. An example of Innate immunity is :
(A) PMNL-neutrophils
(B) T-lymphocytes
(C) B-lymphocytes
(D) TH cells

67. Cocaine is extracted from :
(A) Erythroxylum coca
(B) Cannabis sativa
(C) Papaver somniferum
(D) Atropa belladonna

68. The enzyme that cuts DNA is :
(A) DNA-polymerase
(B) DNA-ligase
(C) DNA-lyase
(D) Restriction endonuclease

69. In the association between two organisms, if one organism is benefited and the other is not benefited, this relationship is known as :
(A) Symbiotism
(B) Mutualism
(C) Commensalism
(D) Parasitism

70. Opiate narcotics drugs are :
(A) Antianxiety
(B) Analgesic
(C) Hypnotic
(D) Antihistamine

71. The drug useful to increase cardiovascular effects in human beings is :
(A) Cocaine
(B) Barbiturate
(C) Benzodiazetine
(D) Insulin

72. In echolocation, the animal that produces high frequency sounds is :
(A) Monkey
(B) Butterfly
(C) Squirrel
(D) Bat

73. Two kingdoms constantly figured in all biological classifications are :
(A) Plantae and Animalia
(B) Monera and Animalia
(C) Protista and Animalia
(D) Protista and Plantae

74. The dioecious animal is :
(A) Liverfluke
(B) Hookworm
(C) Tapeworm
(D) Earthworm

75. Comb plates are found in :
(A) Adamsia
(B) Aurelia
(C) Nereis
(D) Pleurobrachia

Answers with Hints
1. (B) Cladode is a type of phylloclade consisting of one internode only. These are cylindrical (not fleshy) and are mistaken for leaves.
2. (D) Verticillaster is a complex inflorescence found in the Ocimum sanctum, a member of family Labiatae.
3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (A)
8. (D) Cleistogamy is seen in underground flowers of Commelina bengalensis which are small and inconspicuous. This plant also bears chasmogamous blue flowers above.
9. (B) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (A)
13. (C) Short day plant (SDP) requires a relatively short day light period (usually 8-10 hrs.) and a continuous dark period of about 14–16 hours for subsequent flowering.
14. (C) 15. (A) 16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (B)
19. (B) Kranz anatomy—It is a typical structure in the leaves of plants that have a C4–pathway of CO2 fixation. The leaves contain a ring of mesophyll cells, containing a few chloroplasts surroundings a sheath of bundle sheath cells having large chloroplasts involved in the Calvin cycle.
20. (B) 21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (D) 26. (A)
27. (D) Acid rain results from the emission into the atmosphere of various pollutant gases in particular sulphur dioxide (SO2) and oxides of nitrogen (NO2), which originate from the burning of fossil fuels and from motor-car exhaust fumes, respectively.
28. (A) 29. (B) 30. (B) 31. (C) 32. (D)
33. (C) The first National Park in India was set up in 1935 in the foot hills of Himalayas and was known as Hailey National Park. It is now known as Corbett National Park.
34. (A) Tobacco mosaic virus (TMV) is a rigid rod-shaped ssRNA-containing virus that causes distortion and blistering of leaves in a wide range of plants.
35. (B) Kingdom Monera includes all prokaryotes. They are basically unicellular but can be mycelial, colonial and filamentous.
36. (A) 37. (A)
38. (B) A striking feature of cnidarians is the high degree of polymorphism often seen in a single species. Two basic types—sessile polyp and free-swimming medusa–occur.
39. (D) 40. (D) 41. (C)
42. (D) Members of Elasmobranchii subclass have no swim (air) bladders.
43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (A) 46. (C) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (C)
50. (D) Golgi complex is a part of endomembrane system, which is the system of internal membranes within eukaryotic cells that divide the cell into functional and structural compartments, or organelles.
51. (A) 52. (B)
53. (B) AB blood group in human is an example of codominance in which both the alleles IA IB are equally expressed. It means IA IB individuals have a phenotype that is essentially a combination of those shown by individuals with A and B blood groups.
54. (A)
55. (A) A small autosome, chromosome 21, added to the normal complement (47, + 21) causes Down syndrome. This is a trisomic for chromosome 21.
56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (A)
61. (C) The Mesozoic era is often known as the “Golden Age of Reptiles” as these animals, which included the dinosaurs and ichthyosaurs, became dominant lifeform.
62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (A)
68. (D) Restriction enzyme is a class of nucleases originally extracted from the E . coli. Type I restriction enzymes bind to a recognition site of duplex DNA, travel along the molecule and cleave one strand only. Type II cleaves the duplex at specific target site at or near the binding site.
69. (C) 70. (B) 71. (A) 72. (C) 73. (A) 74. (B) 75. (D)

Geography questions- general knowledge

2010-02-03T20:57:00.000-08:00

Geography questions- general knowledge

1. Which of the following rocks is different from the remaining three on the basis of its mode of origin?
(A) Limestone
(B) Sandstone
(C) Shale
(D) Marble
Ans : (D)

2. Which of the following land forms is not associated with river erosion?
(A) Waterfall
(B) V-shaped valley
(C) Moraines
(D) Ox-bow lake
Ans : (C)

3. Which of the following latitudes is the longest?
(A) 23°N
(B) 66°N
(C) 0°
(D) 80°N
Ans : (C)

4. Two places on the same meridian must have the same—
(A) Length of summer
(B) Length of winter
(C) Latitude
(D) Solar time
Ans : (D)

5. When it is 6.00 AM on 0° meridian, at the same time what time would be there in India?
(A) 6.30 AM
(B) 9.30 AM
(C) 11.30 AM
(D) 5.30 AM
Ans : (C)

6. Which of the following processes helps in the formation of rift valley?
(A) Seismism
(B) Faulting
(C) Folding
(D) Volcanism
Ans : (B)

7. Which of the following names is given to the planetary winds blowing between the tropics?
(A) Monsoon
(B) Polar winds
(C) Westerlies
(D) Trade winds
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following cities is not located on Varanasi-Chennai rail-route?
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Nagpur
(C) Jabalpur
(D) Allahabad
Ans : (D)

9. Where is Dead Sea situated in the following continents?
(A) Europe
(B) Australia
(C) Asia
(D) Africa
Ans : (C)

10. Which of the following industries is most developed in the Great Lakes region of North America?
(A) Cement and Paper
(B) Steel and Engineering
(C) Film industry
(D) Textile and Chemicals
Ans : (B)

11. Which of the following group of countries is most famous for exporting wool and meat?
(A) Australia, Sri Lanka, Indonesia
(B) Argentina, France, Chile
(C) Australia, Argentina, New Zealand
(D) New Zealand, Argentina, Italy
Ans : (C)

12. Which of the following soils is most suitable for the cultivation of cotton in India?
(A) Red soil
(B) Laterite soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) Regur soil
Ans : (D)

13. Which of the following state groups is the largest producer of iron-ore in India?
(A) Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar
(B) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Punjab
(C) Maharashtra, Orissa, Andhra Pradesh
(D) Bihar, W. Bengal, Orissa
Ans : (A)

14. Which of the following landforms is different from other three on the basis of the mode of origin?
(A) Fold
(B) Anticline
(C) Nappes
(D) Rift Valley
Ans : (D)

15. Which of the following landform is not associated with glaciation?
(A) Hanging valley
(B) Moraines
(C) Inselberg
(D) Drumlin
Ans : (C)

16. Which of the following order is given to the planets of solar system on the basis of their size?
(A) Saturn, Jupitar, Mercury, Neptune
(B) Jupitar, Saturn, Neptune, Mercury
(C) Jupitar, Mercury, Neptune, Saturn
(D) Neptune, Mercury, Saturn, Jupitar
Ans : (B)

17. As we go higher into the atmosphere, the air becomes—
(A) Thinner
(B) Denser
(C) Warmer
(D) Visible
Ans : (A)

18. From which of the following longitude the Indian standard time is determined?
(A) 82° 30' East
(B) 80° West
(C) 90° East
(D) 81° 30' East
Ans : (A)

19. Which of the following oceans are connected by Panama Canal?
(A) Pacific and Atlantic
(B) Atlantic and Indian Ocean
(C) Indian Ocean and Pacific
(D) Atlantic and North Ocean
Ans : (A)

20. For which crop production is 'Saopalo' famous?
(A) Cotton
(B) Maize
(C) Coffee
(D) Tea
Ans : (C)

21. Which of the following State group is largest producer of mineral oil in India?
(A) Gujarat, U. P., Maharashtra
(B) Maharashtra, W. Bengal, Assam
(C) Assam, U. P., Bihar
(D) Assam, Gujarat, Maharashtra
Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following water-ways does not pass through the Panama Canal?
(A) London-Honolulu.
(B) New York-San francisco
(C) New York-Buenos Aires
(D) New York-Sydney
Ans : (C)

23. Which of the following latitudes is a great circle?
(A) Equator
(B) 66°N
(C) 20°S
(D) 23°S
Ans : (A)

24. Which of the following city is not located on Delhi-Kolkata rail route?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Allahabad
(C) Gaya
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (D)

25. Which of the following industries is famous in the Ruhr industrial region of Europe?
(A) Textile and Chemicals
(B) Steel and Engineering
(C) Cement and Paper
(D) Ship building
Ans : (B)

26. If the direction of the earth's rotation on its axis is east-west, what would be the direction of Trade wind blowing in Southern hemisphere?
(A) South-West
(B) South-East
(C) North-East
(D) North-West
Ans : (B)

27. The coldest hour of the day is approximately—
(A) 5 a.m.
(B) 9 p.m.
(C) 3 a.m.
(D) 10 a.m.
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the followings is fibre mineral?
(A) Zinc
(B) Asbestos
(C) Coal
(D) Asphalt
Ans : (B)

29. What are asteroids?
(A) Minor planets revolving round the Sun between the orbits of Mars and Jupiter
(B) Luminous celestial bodies moving round the Sun
(C) A group of fixed stars arranged naturally
(D) Small pieces of solid matter which appear in the earth's atmosphere as shooting stars from out spaces and become visible through incandescence caused by the resistance of the air to their passage,
Ans : (A)

30. What is Isthmus?
(A) The mouth of a river where it joins the sea
(B) A narrow strip of sea dividing two oceans
(C) A narrow strip of land joining two seas or oceans
(D) A piece of projected land
Ans : (C)

31. Which of the following phenomena causes the shape of the Earth ?
(A) Internal structure
(B) Atmospheric pressure
(C) Rotation
(D) Revolution
Ans : (C)

32. Which of the following is the location of a point on the globe that is antipodal to 65° North Latitude and 30° East Longitude?
(A) 65° North Lat., 30° West Long
(B) 30° South Lat., 65° East Long
(C) 65° South Lat., 150° West Long
(D) 30° North Lat., 65° West Long
Ans : (C)

33. The surface of the earth is still irregular inspite of millions of years of gradation, because—
(A) Gradation is a slow process
(B) Gradation does not reduce irregularities
(C) Deposition of material re-elevates the land
(D) Parts of the crust have been uplifted
Ans : (D)

34. What would result if the sedimentary deposit of the Ganga Plain is compressed between the Himalayas and the Deccan Plateau and then uplifted?
(A) Block mountain
(B) Fold mountain
(C) Rift valley
(D) Volcanic plateau
Ans : (B)

35. What would happen to ocean water if the moon comes nearer to the earth ?
(A) Fall of temperature
(B) Stopping of ocean currents
(C) Rise of sea level
(D) Increase in height of oceanic tides
Ans : (D)

36. The line joining places of equal atmospheric pressure is termed—
(A) Contour
(B) Isohyet
(C) Isotherm
(D) Isobar
Ans : (D)

37. What would happen to types of rainfall if the earth's surface becomes all plain?
(A) No cyclonic rainfall
(B) No orographic rainfall
(C) No convectional rainfall
(D) No frontal rainfall
Ans : (B)

38. The maximum risk to air travel is from—
(A) Clouds
(B) Rainfall
(C) Fogs
(D) Strong winds
Ans : (C)

39. Which one of the following countries is the largest producer of rice in the world?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) Philippines
(D) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)

40. Which of the following countries possesses a strong natural resource base for iron and steel industry ?
(A) Russia
(B) Pakistan
(C) Japan
(D) Bangladesh
Ans : (A)

41. The present day search for fuels alternative to petroleum, is due mainly to—
(A) Iran-Iraq war
(B) Strained relations between Israel and Middle East countries
(C) Highly increased cost of petroleum
(D) Increase in the consumption of petroleum
Ans : (D)

42. What is the population density of a District which has 50 Lakh people and 25 thousand square kilometres area?
(A) 50 persons per sq. km.
(B) 100 persons per sq. km.
(C) 150 persons per sq. km.
(D) 200 persons per sq. km.
Ans : (D)

43. The Savana type of climate is characterized by—
(A) Humid summers and humid winters
(B) Humid summers and dry winters
(C) Humid winters and dry summers
(D) Humid throughout the year
Ans : (B)

44. Given below are the climate data of a particular station. In which of the following natural regions is the station located
Temperature——Rainfall
(Degrees Centigrade)——(Centimetres)
January——23.3——1.8
February——23.3——1.8
March——21.1——2.5
April——17.8——4.6
May——14.4——7.1
June——12.2——7.9
July——11.1——6.9
August——12.3——6.3
September——13.9——5.1
October——16.7——4.3
November——19.4——3.0
December——27.7——2.5
(A) Warm temperate East coast type
(B) Warm temperate West coast type
(C) Warm temperate Continent type
(D) Hot deserts
Ans : (B)

45. Which of the following groups of countries is arranged in descending order of area?
(A) Russia, Canada, China, U.S.A.
(B) Russia, U.S.A. Canada, China
(C) Russia, Canada, U.S.A., China
(D) Russia, China, U.S.A., Canada
Ans : (A)

46. Which of the following Industrial Regions of USA is located mainly on the basis of hydroelectric power?
(A) The New York, Philadelphia, Baltimore region
(B) The Southern New England Region
(C) The Southern Lake Michigan Region
(D) The Detroit Region
Ans : (B)

47. What should India increase in order to become one of the most prosperous countries of the world?
(A) Food production
(B) Industrial production
(C) Population
(D) Trade
Ans : (B)

48. Water power potential of India is great, but it has not been developed to its full extent. The major deterrant being that—
(A) Coal is available in plenty therefore it is not necessary to develop water power
(B) Raw materials required for the production of electric transformers are not available in India
(C) Rainfall is seasonal and as such requires costly storage resevoirs
(D) Lack of technical skill hinders the development of water power
Ans : (C)

49. Which of the following regions has almost prevalent types of natural vegetation in India?
(A) The Himalaya mountain
(B) The Deccan Plateau
(C) The Ganga plain
(D) The Coastal plains
Ans : (C)

50. For which of the following manufacturing industries does India have the most natural resources?
(A) Glass Synthetic rubber
(B) Synthetic rubber
(C) Iron and Steel
(D) Aluminium
Ans : (C)

51. One of the characteristics of India's population is lesser number of women compared to men. Which one of the following explains this phenomenon?
(A) Excess males at birth
(B) Lower social status of women
(C) Neglect of females in childhood
(D) High maternity mortality
Ans : (C)

52. The basic unit of settlement recurring throughout India is the village. Which of the following criteria is largely responsible for the selection of village sites?
(A) Behavioural patterns of the community
(B) Availability of flat land
(C) Essential resources like water and fuel
(D) Fuel resources and building materials
Ans : (C)

53. Which one of the following factors accounts largely for the dispersal of cotton textile industry from its original location around Bombay?
(A) The development of transportation, especially railways
(B) Extreme congestion in Mumbai and lack of space
(C) The development of hydro-electric power
(D) Improved technology
Ans : (B)

54. The main cause for Uttar Pradesh becoming the most important agricultural state of India is—
(A) Good cultivators
(B) Good climate
(C) Large market
(D) Extensive fertile plain
Ans : (D)

55. What locational advantage does India possess for International trade?
(A) Central location in the Eastern hemisphere
(B) Location in the middle of the developing countries
(C) Location at the sourthern end of Asia
(D) Location on the east-west oceanic route through the Suez Canal
Ans : (D)

56. The longest dam is—
(A) Aswan
(B) Hirakud
(C) Gorky
(D) Mangla
Ans : (B)

57. Which state in India is the largest producer of Saffron?
(A) Jammu and Kashmir
(B) Sikkim
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (A)

58. Which is the largest man-made lake in India?
(A) Chilka
(B) Dal
(C) Sambhar
(D) Bhakra
Ans : (D)

59. Where is the Gol Dumoaz located?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kamataka
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (C)

60. Gulmarg is a hill station in—
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)

61. The largest producer of cashewnut in India is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (A)

62. Lal Bahadur National Academy of Administration is situated in—
(A) Pune
(B) Kolkata
(C) Dehradun
(D) Mussoorie
Ans : (D)

63. In what state is 'Rana Pratap Sagar' atomic power plant located?
(A) Haryana
(B) Gujarat
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Karnataka
Ans : (C)

64. Where is oil and Natural Gas Commission located?
(A) Haldia
(B) Dehradun
(C) Ankleshwar
(D) Cambay
Ans : (B)

65. Which of the following is situated at Agra ?
(A) Paratroopers Training College
(B) National Police Academy
(C) Central Tractor Organisation
(D) Air Force Flying College
Ans : (A)

66. The prevailing winds blowing from 30° S and 30° N towards the equator are termed as—
(A) Monsoon winds
(B) Antitrade winds
(C) Trade winds
(D) Polar winds
Ans : (C)

67. Irrigation is necessary for areas receiving rainfall—
(A) Less than 200 cm.
(B) Less than 75 cm.
(C) Less than 125 cm.
(D) At uncertain times
Ans : (B)

68. The reason for the necessity of irrigation in India is that—
(A) There is no rainfall at the time of need
(B) Indian crops require much water
(C) Indian farmers are in habit of watering the fields
(D) India is a hot country so water is easily evaporated
Ans : (A)

69. Which one of the following sources of irrigation in India is not suitable?
(A) Canals
(B) Karez
(C) Wells
(D) Tanks
Ans : (B)

70. In which of the following states of India, tank irrigation is most suitable?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Punjab
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar
Ans : (A)

71. The canals of Kerala state are—
(A) Canals of Nagarjunasagar irrigation works
(B) Canals of Rampadsagar irrigation works
(C) Canals of Mangalam irrigation scheme
(D) Canals of the Mettur irrigation scheme
Ans : (C)

72. In which of the following state is Tungabhadra project of irrigation?
(A) Bihar
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : (B)

73. How much part of India is irrigated by canals?
(A) 42%
(B) 60%
(C) 80%
(D) 25%
Ans : (A)

74. From where the Sirhind canal takes off?
(A) At Okhla near Delhi
(B) From Fire-lake at Khadakwesla
(C) From Gomati at Banbansa
(D) From the SutIej at Rupar
Ans : (D)

75. Where is Krishnaraja Sagar?
(A) In Kota
(B) In Udaipur
(C) In Mysore
(D) In Hyderabad
Ans : (C)

76. The number of wells in South India is very low because—
(A) The people of South India do not like to take water from wells
(B) Wells are difficult to dig because of hard rock underneath the thin layer of the soil
(C) There is too much rainfall therefore wells are not needed
(D) The people of South India do not know how to dig wells
Ans : (B)

77. For the production of wheat there should be—
(A) Cool and wet climate during its growing period but hot climate during the ripening period
(B) Sufficient heat but very little rainfall
(C) Sufficient heat and heavy rainfall
(D) Hot climate during the growing period but cool climate during the ripening period
Ans : (A)

78. During the summer monsoon the Himalayas have rains on their—
(A) Southern and western slopes
(B) Northern and eastern slopes
(C) Northern and western slopes
(D) Southern and eastern slopes
Ans : (D)

79. Which one of the following rivers originates from Amarkantak ?
(A) Son river
(B) Mahanadi
(C) Godavari river
(D) Sutlej river
Ans : (A)

80. The rivers of South India are—
(A) Suitable for hydro electricity
(B) Suitable sources of canals
(C) Full of water throughout the year
(D) Suitable for nevigation
Ans : (A)

81. Raining in Mumbai is—
(A) Mostly in summer
(B) Mostly in winter
(C) Throughout the year evenly
(D) Very rare
Ans : (A)

82. The Climate of India is—
(A) Mediterrian type
(B) Equatorial type
(C) Desert type
(D) Monsoon type
Ans : (D)

83. If Aravalli ranges were from east to west—
(A) There would be no difference at all
(B) Bengal would have been the dry area
(C) The western Rajasthan would never have been a desert
(D) Uttar Pradesh wold have been a desert
Ans : (C)

84. The range of temperature of Mathura in comparison of Kolkata is—
(A) Too much
(B) Too little
(C) Zero
(D) Uniform
Ans : (A)

85. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in the north-western region of India are part of—
(A) Trade winds
(B ) Westerlies
(C) Local disturbances
(D) Retreating monsoons
Ans : (B)

86. The chief production in region having black soil is—
(A) Cotton
(B) Rice
(C) Wheat
(D) Tea
Ans : (A)

87. Which one of the following soils found in India is the most useful for agriculture?
(A) Black or regur soil
(B) Alluvial soil
(C) Red and yellow soil
(D) Marshy soil
Ans : (B)

88. Kaziranga, the famous sanctuary of Assam is famous for—
(A) Rhinoes
(B) Tigers
(C) Lions
(D) Elephants
Ans : (A)

89. Sindri manufactures—
(A) Silk
(B) Paper
(C) Steel
(D) Fertilizers
Ans : (D)

90. Which one of the following forests is found in Sundarbans ?
(A) Evergreen forests
(B) Coniferous forests
(C) Coastal forests
(D) Deciduous forests
Ans : (C)

91. The leaves of the plants of desert forests are—
(A) Pointed in shape
(B) Small sized and thorny
(C) Long
(D) Broad
Ans : (B)

92. Railway coaches are made from—
(A) Shisham
(B) Deodar
(C) Teak
(D) Pine
Ans : (B)

93. Which one of the following is the biggest producer of rice?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Punjab
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Rajasthan
Ans : (A)

94. What type of trees are found in the monsoon region?
(A) Broad leaf deciduous trees
(B) Evergreen trees
(C) Conifers
(D) Thorny bushes
Ans : (A)

95. What type of climate is required for sugarcane?
(A) Dry and hot
(B) Hot and wet
(C) Cold and dry
(D) Cold and wet
Ans : (B)

96. Sri Harikota situated in Andhra Pradesh is famous for—
(A) National Remote Sensing Agency
(B) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
(C) Satellite Control Centre
(D) Satellite Trackings and Ranging Station
Ans : (C)

97. A high ratio of non-workers to workers, as we have in India indicates—
(A) High degree of cultural development
(B) A State of self-sufficiency
(C) The rich natural resources of the country
(D) A rapid growth of population
Ans : (D)

98. What is Kolar ?
(A) Oil field in Assam
(B) A hydro-electric scheme in Bihar
(C) Gold fields in Karnataka
(D) A salt factory in Sambhal
Ans : (C)

99. Koderma, a place in Jharkhand is famous for—
(A) Mica mining centre
(B) Photogoods
(C) Cement factory
(D) Leather goods
Ans : (A)

100. Which one of the following states produces silver in abundance?
(A) Orissa
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Kerala
(D) West Bengal
Ans : (B)

101. What is the number of India among the producers of manganese ore in the world?
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) None
Ans : (C)

102. Which of the following is an igneous rocks?
(A) Limestone
(B) Slate
(C) Marble
(D) Basalt
Ans : (D)

103. Blue mountains are—
(A) The Vindyas
(B) The Nilgiri hills
(C) The Himalayas
(D) The Aravali ranges
Ans : (B)

104. The new name of Calicut, a famous city of Kerala is—
(A) Kozhikode
(B) Trivendrum
(C) Kalighat
(D) Koderma
Ans : (A)

105. The largest producer of Coco in Africa is—
(A) Ghana
(B) Sudan
(C) Nigeria
(D) Ivory Coast
Ans : (A)

106. Which state in India has highest population?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) West Bengal
(D) Bihar
Ans : (B)

107. According to the census of 2001 which of the following cities in India has the maximum population?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) New Delhi
(D) Chennai
Ans : (A)

108. The only state in India that shows an excess of females over males is—
(A) Kerala
(B) Punjab
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Assam
Ans : (A)

109. The Farakka Barrage has been constructed on the river—
(A) Hugli
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Bhagirathi
(D) Padmini
Ans : (A)

110. The Gandhi Sagar dam has been constructed on the boundary of Rajasthan and—
(A) Orissa
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (B)

111. Name the river whose water is utilized by Kakrapara project—
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Tunghbhadra
(C) Damodar
(D) Tapti
Ans : (D)

112. Which state in India occupies the first place in literacy—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnatak
Ans : (C)

113. Which State or Union Territory of India has the lowest literacy?
(A) Bihar
(B) Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Manipur
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (A)

114. Where is the headquarter of the Centre Board of Film censors?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Pune
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (A)

115. The highest number of cotton mills in India is —
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Mumbai
(C) Coimbatore
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (A)

116. Churk is famous for—
(A) Cement factory
(B) Paper factory
(C) Sugar factory
(D) Carpet
Ans : (A)

117. The biggest newsprint paper mill of India is at—
(A) Titagarh
(B) Ballarpur
(C) Nepanagar
(D) Saharanpur
Ans : (C)

118. Bhilai Steel works has been built with the foreign collaboration of the—
(A) British
(B) Russians
(C) Germans
(D) Americans
Ans : (B)

119. The biggest number of sugar mills in India is in the state—
(A) Bihar
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)

120. The biggest number of jute mills in India is on the bank of the river—
(A) Hooghly
(B) Mahandi
(C) Brahmputra
(D) Cauvery
Ans : (A)

121. The biggest number of jute mills in India is in West Bengal because—
(A) This is the region of raw materials for jute products
(B) The climate is suitable
(C) It is near the consuming area
(D) Cheap supply of labour is available here
Ans : (A)

122. Which one of the following is the centre for cycle industry ?
(A) Firozabad
(B) Sonipat
(C) Allahabad
(D) Nagpur
Ans : (B)

123. Wet climate is suitable for cotton textile Industry because—
(A) Cotton yarn cannot be spun successfully under dry conditions
(B) The efficiency of the workers increases
(C) The rate of damage of machinery is decreased
(D) The rate of consumption electric power is decreased
Ans : (A)

124. 'Lalimli Mill' is in the town—
(A) Amritsar
(B) Faridabad
(C) Kanpur
(D) Ludhiana
Ans : (C)

125. Which one of the following cities in India is famous for gold wire embroidery on silken sarees even in foreign countries?
(A) Agra
(B) Varanasi
(C) Srinagar
(D) Tatanagar
Ans : (B)

126. Dalda brand vegetable Product is manufactured in—
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kanpur
(C) Modinagar
(D) Ghaziabad
Ans : (A)

127. Which one of the following towns in famous for glass bangles all over India?
(A) Sirampur
(B) Naini
(C) Mumbai
(D) Firozabad
Ans : (D)

128. Which is the longest road of India?
(A) Pathankot Jammu Road
(B) Great Deccan Road
(C) Grand Trunk Road
(D) Mahatma Gandhi Road
Ans : (C)

129. Dum Dum airport is in—
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kolkata
(C) Delhi
(D) Chennai
Ans : (B)

130. At present what is the length of Western Railway line?
(A) 6,475 kms
(B) 10,973 kms
(C) 7,051 kms
(D) 7,160 kms
Ans : (A)

131. The 'Head Quarters' of North East Railway is at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Gorakhpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) Kanpur
Ans : (B)

132. For going to Kashmir, the railway route is—
(A) Northern Railway
(B) North-East Railway
(C) Eastern Railway
(D) Western Railway
Ans : (A)

133. The Golden Temple Express runs between—
(A) New Delhi and Madurai
(B) Delhi and Howrah
(C) Amritsar and C.S.T.
(D) Ferozpur and Bombay V.T.
Ans : (C)

134. Where is the Railway Staff College situated?
(A) Ahmedabad
(B) Vadodara
(C) Chandausi
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (B)

135. The Diesel Locomotive Works is situated at—
(A) Varanasi
(B) Kolkata
(C) Chitranjan
(D) Jamshedpur
Ans : (A)

136. Which of the following trains runs between C. S. T. to Pune ?
(A) Rajdhani Express
(B) Deccan Queen
(C) Avadh Express
(D) Jayanti Janta
Ans : (B)

137. Chitranjan is famous for—
(A) Airport
(B) Ship building
(C) Production of electric and diesel locomotives
(D) Air craft factory
Ans : (C)

138. Inland Air services in India are run by the—
(A) Air India
(B) Air services of India
(C) Indian Air lines
(D) Air Bharat
Ans : (C)

139. Which of the states of India ranks first in tribal population?
(A) Assam
(B) Bihar
(C) Chhatisgarh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)

140. What is the rank of India in the world with respect to the population?
(A) Second
(B) First
(C) Third
(D) None
Ans : (A)

141. Which one of the following is used for measuring the speed of wind?
(A) Hygrometer
(B) Barometer
(C) Anemometer
(D) Thermometer
Ans : (C)

142. The maximum density of population of India is in the state—
(A) West Bengal
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Kerala
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

143. What do you mean by the term density of population of a country ?
(A) The average number of deaths per annum
(B) The average number of births per annum
(C) The average number of people living in one hectare
(D) The average number of people living in one square kilometre
Ans : (D)

144. Chandigarh is the capital of—
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Punjab and Haryana
(D) Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (C)

145. The Capital of Karnatak state is—
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Bangalore
(C) Warangal
(D) Tiruvanantpuram
Ans : (B)

146. The biggest meteorological laboratory of India is in—
(A) Pune
(B) Jaipur
(C) Patna
(D) Kanpur
Ans : (A)

147. Which one of the following is the centre of Higher Technical education?
(A) Bhilai
(B) Kharagpur
(C) Srinagar
(D) Mathura
Ans : (B)

148. Which one of the following ports has replaced Karachi ?
(A) Kandla
(B) Mumbai
(C) Surat
(D) Cochin
Ans : (A)

149. Which is the best natural port of India?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Chennai
(C) Mumbai
(D) Kandla
Ans : (C)

150. Kakrapara Project is an irrigation project on the river of—
(A) Mahi
(B) Tapti
(C) Narmada
(D) Godavari
Ans : (B)

151. Bidi is manufactured in—
(A) Jabalpur
(B) Ajmer
(C) Gwalior
(D) Indore
Ans : (A)

152. The natural sea port from where spices, tea, coffee, sugar and coconut oil are exported, is—
(A) Kandla
(B) Chennai
(C) Vishakhapatnam
(D) Cochin
Ans : (D)

153. Which one of the following is known as 'Pittsburg of India' ?
(A) Baroda
(B) Rourkela
(C) Jamshedpur
(D) Durgapur
Ans : (C)

154. India imports chiefly from—
(A) Iran
(B) Russia
(C) Britain
(D) United State of America
Ans : (D)

155. The maximum export of India is to—
(A) United States of America
(B) Germany
(C) Russia
(D) Britain
Ans : (A)

156. The most leading port of India for import is—
(A) Mumbai
(B) Kandla
(C) Kolkata
(D) Chennai
Ans : (A)

157. Which of the following states produces asbestos in abundance?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (B)

158. Which is the richest state of India from the point of view of minerals?
(A) Kerala
(B) Bihar
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (D)

159. Which one of the following states is such whose inhabitants are mostly Christians?
(A) Nagaland
(B) Manipur
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Tripura
Ans : (A)

160. Which one of the following languages is used in Tripura ?
(A) Hindi
(B) Mizo
(C) Khasi
(D) Bengali
Ans : (D)

161. Which one of the following states is famous for sandal wood?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (C)

162. Which state of India is known as land of paradise?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Haryana
(D) Assam
Ans : (B)

163. In India, which coast receives rainfall from North East monsoon—
(A) Konkan Coast
(B) Malabar Coast
(C) Coromandal Coast
(D) Gujarat Coast
Ans : (C)

164. Which country is called the Sugar Bowl of the World ?
(A) India
(B) Cuba
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (B)

165. The Islands of Cloves is—
(A) Zanzibar
(B) New Zealand
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Cuba
Ans : (A)

166. Croydon is an international air port of—
(A) U. S. A.
(B) France
(C) U. K.
(D) India
Ans : (C)

167. Which country is associated with 'kiwis' ?
(A) Phillippines
(B) New Zealand
(C) Malaysia
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (B)

168. What is the new name of Siam ?
(A) Thailand
(B) Canton
(C) Taiwan
(D) Timor
Ans : (A)

169. The capital of Norway is—
(A) Copenhagan
(B) Oslo
(C) Beirut
(D) Canton
Ans : (B)

170. Kalahari deert is in—
(A) North Africa
(B) South Africa
(C) South America
(D) Australia
Ans : (B)

171. Dead sea a salt water lake, is locatted between—
(A) Israel and Jordan
(B) Egypt and Libya
(C) Israel and Lebanon
(D) Morocco and Spain
Ans : (A)

172. Which river forms the boundary line between Uttar Pradesh and Haryana ?
(A) Sutlej
(B) Yamuna
(C) Ganga
(D) Parvati
Ans : (B)

173. Britain and France and divided by the natural boundary of—
(A) The Alps
(B) The English Channel
(C) The river Thames
(D) The river Seine
Ans : (B)

174. The coldest place of the world is in—
(A) Verkhoyansk
(B) Nr. Vostok
(C) Ust' Shchugor
(D) Snag
Ans : (B)

175. Which is the hottest place of the word?
(A) A Aziziyah
(B) Seville
(C) Death Valley
(D) Jacobabad
Ans : (A)

176. Which country is the biggest producer of tea in the world?
(A) India
(B) Russia
(C) China
(D) Brazil
Ans : (A)

177. Which country is the biggest producer of rubber in the world?
(A) Malaysia
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Thailand
(D) Brazil
Ans : (A)

178. The Capital of Iran is—
(A) Bagdad
(B) Tehran
(C) Adan
(D) Basra
Ans : (B)

179. Which of the following rivers is known as the 'Sorrow of China' ?
(A) Hwang Ho
(B) Amur
(C) Mekong
(D) Yangteesi-Kiang
Ans : (A)

180. What is the main industrial production in Switzerland?
(A) Cotton textile
(B) Motor-cars
(C) Watch and clocks
(D) Cement
Ans : (C)

181. Paris is famous for—
(A) Museum and library
(B) Fashion and decoration
(C) Healthy climate
(D) Dairy industry
Ans : (B)

182. Which country of Europe is famous for dairy industry?
(A) Denmark
(B) Norway
(C) Sweden
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (A)

183. Which is the river that originates from Black Forest and falls in Black sea?
(A) Rhine
(B) Oder
(C) Danube
(D) Don
Ans : (C)

184. Which is the longest river of Europe ?
(A) Danube
(B) Volga
(C) Rhine
(D) Seine
Ans : (B)

185. Which country of Europe is known as the 'Country of Lakes' ?
(A) Finland
(B) Italy
(C) France
(D) Spain
Ans : (A)

186. Which is the mountain between the Black sea and Caspian sea?
(A) Ural
(B) Caucasus
(C) Alps
(D) Balkan
Ans : (B)

187. In which country of Europe is the active volcano of Vesuvius?
(A) Italy
(B) Norway
(C) France
(D) Germany
Ans : (A)

188. Which of the two Seas are linked by the strait of Gibraltar ?
(A) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
(B) North Sea and Baltic Sea
(C) Atlantic Ocean and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
Ans : (C)

189. The Kiel canal links—
(A) Mediterranean and Black Sea
(B) Pacific and Atlantic oceans
(C) Mediterranean and Red Sea
(D) North Sea and Baltic Sea
Ans : (D)

190. The chief wine producer of the world is—
(A) Great Britain
(B) Norway
(C) France
(D) Germany
Ans : (C)

191. Which of the following has the greatest importance in commercial fisheries?
(A) Spain
(B) Dogger Banks
(C) Italy
(D) Portugal
Ans : (B)

192. What is the chief import of U.K. ?
(A) Food stuffs and raw material
(B) Machines and rubber
(C) Wine and biscuits
(D) Iron and coal
Ans : (A)

193. What is the chief mineral of Russia?
(A) Iron
(B) Coal
(C) Copper
(D) Tin
Ans : (B)

194. Edinburgh is famous for—
(A) Higher education
(B) Iron industry
(C) Dairy industry
(D) Fish industry
Ans : (A)

195. The longest railway line of the world is—
(A) Canadian Pacific Railway
(B) Cape-Cairo Railway
(C) Trans-Siberian Railway
(D) Paris-Constantinople Railway
Ans : (C)

196. In which one of the following places the population is very low?
(A) Interior part of Spain
(B) North plain of Italy
(C) Southern part of Holland
(D) Plain of Douro in Portugal
Ans : (A)

197. Chief Industry of Canada is—
(A) Wine
(B) Dairy
(C) Iron
(D) Wood pulp and paper
Ans : (D)

198. The Capital of U.S.A. is—
(A) St. Louis
(B) San Francisco
(C) Washington D.C.
(D) Newyork
Ans : (C)

199. Winnipeg is famous in the world for—
(A) Natural scenery
(B) Wheat centre
(C) High buildings
(D) Film industry
Ans : (B)

200. The name of the canal which links Pacific and Atlantic Ocean, is—
(A) Panama
(B) Suez
(C) Kiel
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

201. The biggest lake of fresh water in the world is—
(A) Baikal lake
(B) Superior lake
(C) Nyasa lake
(D) Victoria lake
Ans : (B)

202. Which one of the following towns is not the railway station of Canadian Pacific Railway?
(A) Regina
(B) Winning
(C) San Francisco
(D) Vancouver
Ans : (C)

203. The river Mississipi falls in—
(A) The Gulf of Mexico
(B) Atlantic Ocean
(C) Pacific Ocean
(D) Superior lake
Ans : (A)

204. Sierra Nevada is the name of—
(A) An animal of America
(B) A disease found in America
(C) A fruit found in America
(D) A mountain in America
Ans : (D)

205. The biggest meat market of the world is in—
(A) London
(B) Boston
(C) Chicago
(D) Winnipeg
Ans : (C)

206. Red Indians are the original inhabitants of—
(A) Africa
(B) North America
(C) Asia
(D) Europe
Ans : (B)

207. Which part of North America is the most thinly populated?
(A) Alaska
(B) California
(C) Eastern Part of U.S.A.
(D) The region of great lakes
Ans : (A)

208. What is exported from Halifax?
(A) Wood and its articles
(B) Fish and Fruits
(C) Petroleum
(D) Wheat
Ans : (B)

209. What is the chief agricultural product of the U.S.A. ?
(A) Maize
(B) Cotton
(C) Barley
(D) Rice
Ans : (A)

210. What is the chief occupation of Brazilians?
(A) Sugar Production
(B) Mining
(C) Producing Coffee
(D) Sheep rearing
Ans : (C)

211. When does it rains in the Central valley of Chile?
(A) In summer
(B) In winter
(C) Throughout the year
(D) Never
Ans : (B)

212. Which is the biggest river of South America?
(A) Amazon
(B) Peru
(C) Orinico
(D) Parana-Paraguay
Ans : (A)

213. Where does the river Uruguay fall ?
(A) In Pacific ocean
(B) Titicaca lake
(C) In Carribean sea
(D) In Atlantic Ocean
Ans : (D)

214. What is Uspallata in South America?
(A) An animal
(B) A lake
(C) A pass
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)

215. Which one of the following regions, comes under the equatorial climate?
(A) Desert of Chile
(B) Amaion-basin
(C) Plain of Brazil
(D) Pampass
Ans : (B)

216. Which one of the following countries is famous for the production of nitre?
(A) Chile
(B) Brazil
(C) Peru
(D) Columbia
Ans : (A)

217. Which is the biggest port of Argentina?
(A) Bahia Blanca
(B) Buenos Aires
(C) La Plato
(D) Mar Del Plato
Ans : (B)

218. The capital of Brazil is—
(A) Bahia Blanca
(B) Buenos Aires
(C) La Plato
(D) Brasilia
Ans : (D)

219. The largest units of coir industry are located at—
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)

220. Which country of the South America is known as 'Granary of Europe' ?
(A) Argentina
(B) Chile
(C) Brazil
(D) Bolivia
Ans : (A)

221. Atacama desert is in—
(A) Australia
(B) Asia
(C) Africa
(D) South America
Ans : (D)

222. The main region of the South America which produces wheat, is—
(A) Peru
(B) Pampas
(C) Brazil
(D) Columbia
Ans : (B)

223. Which country of the South America, is the biggest producer of Petroleum?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Peru
(C) Chile
(D) Brazil
Ans : (A)

224. Which one of the following animals is found in South America?
(A) Lama
(B) Kangaroo
(C) Giraffe
(D) Gorilla
Ans : (A)

225. The highest mountain peak in Africa is—
(A) Kenya
(B) Atlas
(C) Nyasa
(D) Kilimanjaro
Ans : (D)

226. Which one of the following countries is not in Africa?
(A) Kenya
(B) Nigeria
(C) Bolivia
(D) Ethiopia
Ans : (C)

227. What is the new name of the island of Madagascar ?
(A) Haitti
(B) Malagasy
(C) Mozambique
(D) Maputo
Ans : (B)

228. Kimberley, a town of South Africa is famous for—
(A) Diamonds
(B) Goldmines
(C) Poisoneous Snakes
(D) Seaport
Ans : (A)

229. In which part of Africa, Sahara desert is situated?
(A) Northern part
(B) Southern part
(C) Western part
(D) Eastern part
Ans : (A)

230. Africa is a hot continent, because—
(A) There are many volcanoes
(B) There is a great Sahara desert
(C) The greater part of the continent lies within the equatorial type of climate
(D) This is a big producer of spices
Ans : (C)

231. Which part of Africa has the highest population ?
(A) Valley of the river Niger
(B) Valley of the river Nile
(C) Valley of the river Congo
(D) Valley of the river Zambezi
Ans : (B)

232. Which is the largest lake in Africa?
(A) Tanganyika
(B) Nyasa
(C) Edward
(D) Victoria
Ans : (D)

233. What is said 'veld' in Africa?
(A) Savanna forest
(B) Equatorial forest
(C) Grass lands
(D) Tropical forest
Ans : (C)

234. The river Zambezi originates from—
(A) Victoria lake
(B) Western Plateau
(C) Tanganyika lake
(D) Mt. Atlas
Ans : (B)

235. Which one of the following is not in good number at the sea coasts of Africa?
(A) Rivers
(B) Islands
(C) Lakes
(D) Mountains
Ans : (B)

236. The ore for aluminium is—
(A) Hematite
(B) Bauxite
(C) Laterite
(D) Pyrolusite
Ans : (B)

237. Which one of the following is the largest lake in Rajasthan?
(A) Anasagar
(B) Pichhola
(C) Sambhar
(D) Udaisagar
Ans : (C)

238. In which part of Africa, Uranium is found?
(A) Sahara
(B) Congo basin
(C) Sudan
(D) Rhodesia
Ans : (B)

239. What is the most typical Australian tree?
(A) Oak
(B) Pine
(C) Eucalyptus
(D) Rubber
Ans : (C)

240. What is the main mineral of Australia?
(A) Gold
(B) Silver
(C) Lead
(D) Diamond
Ans : (A)

241. Kalgoorlie and coolgradie mines are in—
(A) Africa
(B) Australia
(C) North America
(D) Europe
Ans : (B)

242. Murray and Darling rivers fall in—
(A) The gulf of Carpentaria
(B) Pacific ocean
(C) Encounter Bay
(D) Indian ocean
Ans : (C)

243. The capital of Tasmania is—
(A) New castle
(B) Hobart
(C) Launceston
(D) Perth
Ans : (B)

244. What is the chief export from New Zealand?
(A) Wool
(B) Oil
(C) Motor car
(D) Cigarette
Ans : (A)

245. Which part of Australia receives rain throughout the year?
(A) Western part
(B) Eastern part
(C) Southern part
(D) Northern part
Ans : (D)

246. Which of the following is the chief crop of Australia?
(A) Rice
(B) Maize
(C) Wheat
(D) Potato
Ans : (C)

247. The chief imports of Australia is—
(A) Gold, cotton, iron and rice
(B) Cigarettes, motorcars, cotton clothes, machines and Petroleum
(C) Coal, iron and wool
(D) Meat, wheat, silver and woolen clothes
Ans : (B)

248. The original inhabitants of New Zealand are known as—
(A) Maoris
(B) Bedouins
(C) Magyars
(D) Tartars
Ans : (A)

249. To which side of Australia, Fiji island is situated?
(A) North-west side
(B) North-east side
(C) In South
(D) In West
Ans : (B)

250. In which of the foIlowing countries, the Christmas festival is celebrated in summer season?
(A) New Zealand
(B) Germany
(C) Japan
(D) New Foundland
Ans : (A)

251. Which one of the following food grains is grown in China in the largest quantity?
(A) Rye
(B) Barley
(C) Rice
(D) Maize
Ans : (C)

252. The climate of South East Australia is cold because—
(A) It is very near to the equator
(B) It is a hilly highland
(C) It is very near to sea
(D) It is in the region of cold winds
Ans : (B)

253. What is Great Barrier Reef?
(A) A belt of Coral along the east coasts of Australia
(B) A cave between Sydney and Malbourne
(C) A fish found area in the sea near New Zealand
(D) A mine situated in the Great Victoria Valley
Ans : (A)

254. Paradeep port lies in—
(A) Kerala
(B) Orissa
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)

255. A radio broadcast from Tokyo on Saturday at 12 noon should be heard at Vancouver—
(A) The same morning
(B) The same evening
(C) On Friday
(D) On Sunday
Ans : (C)

256. Lines joining places receiving equal amount of rainfall are called—
(A) Isohalines
(B) Isobars
(C) Isotherms
(D) Isohyets
Ans : (D)

257. Which State is the largest producer of manganese in India?
(A) Assam
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Orissa
Ans : (D)

258. Which is the largest cotton producing country in the world?
(A) Russia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) India
(D) Egypt
Ans : (B)

259. The capital of Western Australia is—
(A) Sydney
(B) Canberra
(C) Malbourne
(D) Perth
Ans : (D)

260. Which of the following has the smallest population ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Canada
(C) Romania
(D) Australia
Ans : (D)

261. The biggest island in the world is—
(A) New Guinea
(B) Borneo
(C) Greenland
(D) Sumatra
Ans : (C)

262. They Sea port which does not have a petroleum refinery?
(A) Kandla
(B) Mangalore
(C) Chennai
(D) Cochin
Ans : (A)

263. The largest lake in India is—
(A) Wular
(B) Sambhar
(C) Chika
(D) Dal
Ans : (A)

264. Which of the following rivers occupies a riftvalley?
(A) Narmada
(B) Cauvery
(C) Mahanadi
(D) Sutlej
Ans : (A)

265. Sindri is famous for—
(A) Oil refining
(B) Aluminium manufacture
(C) Machine-tool industry
(D) Fertilizer production
Ans : (D)

266. The solar eclipse occurs when—
(A) The sun comes in between the moon and the earth
(B) The earth comes in between the sum and the moon
(C) The moon comes in between the sun and the earth
(D) The moon, the sun and the earth are in a straight line
Ans : (C)

267. The spring tide occurs when the moon, the sun and the earth make in angle of—
(A) 180°
(B) 90°
(C) 45°
(D) 33°
Ans : (A)

268. Atacama is—
(A) A desert region of North Chile
(B) The grassland of Argentina
(C) The peninsular portion of Eastern Mexico
(D) A desert region in Southern California
Ans : (A)

269. The Panama Canal shorterns the distance between—
(A) The Atlantic Ocean and the Mediterranean sea
(B) The Red sea and the Arabian sea
(C) The Pacific and the Atlantic oceans
(D) The Atlantic ocean and the Indian ocean
Ans : (C)

270. The inclination of the earth's axis to plane of the orbit is—
(A) 90°
(B) 23½°
(D) 66½°
(C) 0°
Ans : (B)

271. Which of the following towns is a modern planned town?
(A) Kolkata
(B) Varanasi
(C) Chennai
(D) Chandigarh
Ans : (D)

272. Some one travels from Kolkata to Delhi through the Gangetic plain, he would notice that the cultivation of wheat—
(A) Decreases
(B) Increases
(C) First decreases and then increases
(D) First increases and then decreases
Ans : (B)

273. Nuclear power station in Uttar Pradesh is at—
(A) Mathura
(B) Narora
(C) Lucknow
(D) Kanpur
Ans : (B)

274. The scandinavian countries are located in high latitudes. Parts of countries located in the same latitudes freeze during winter, but the ports located on the Norwegian coast do not freeze.
This is the mainly due to the fact that—
(A) Many small rivers drain to the sea
(B) There is a chain of volcanoes
(C) The North Atlantic Drift flows past the coast
(D) The Westerlies blow from the South West
Ans : (C)

275. Temperature varies from place to place with latitude and altitude. It may increase or decrease depending upon the factors that affect temperature. Certain anomalies may also develop on account of tmique combination of factors. The inversion of temperature would mean that the—
(A) Temperature decreases with elevation
(B) Temperature is constant at different eleations
(C) Temperature decreases and then increases with elevation
(D) Temperature changes along the same latitude
Ans : (C)

276. Natural vegetation of a region depends mainly on climate and hence there are distinctive areas of different types of vegetation. The governing factors in general are temperature, and precipitation. Accordingly, pine forests in India are found in—
(A) The Sunderbans
(B) The Thar desert
(C) The Himalayas
(D) The Ganga plain
Ans : (C)

277. India is an agricultural country and possesses fertile plains and numerous perennial rivers. About 72 per cent of its population resides in the rural areas. Nearly 70 per cent of the people are dependent on agriculture. About three-fourths of the cultivated land of India is used for food production because—
(A) The soil is suitable for food crops
(B) India is an exporter of food grains
(C) India has to feed a large population
(D) Per capita consumption of food in India is the highest in the world
Ans : (A)

278. A considerable part of our cotton, woollen and silk goods is produced on handlooms and powerlooms. Khaddar cloth is made out of handspun yarn. The Indian sarees which have become popular in the western world are produced in the decentralised sector. As many as five million people are employed in this sector. The number is bigger than the total number of persons employed in the organized industries and mining put together. The handloom and Khadi industry is located—
(A) In the urban areas of India
(B) In the capital towns of the states
(C) Largely in the rural areas of India
(D) Only on the urban fringes
Ans : (C)

279. The youngest folded mountain in India is—
(A) Vindhyas
(B) Aravallis
(C) Nilgiris
(D) Siwaliks
Ans : (D)

280. Which of the followings is the shortest day in the southern hemisphere ?
(A) March 21
(B) June 21
(C) September 22
(D) December 23
Ans : (B)

281. Which of the following ports does not have an oil refinery?
(A) Cochin
(B) Chennai
(C) Tuticoran
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)

282. In which of the following minerals in India not self sufficient?
(A) Copper
(B) Iron ore
(C) Coal
(D) Mica
Ans : (A)

283. The Mathura refinery gets its crude supply from—
(A) Assam oil fields
(B) Gujarat oil fields
(C) Bombay High
(D) Imported stock
Ans : (C)

284. The highest peak of Peninsular India is ?
(A) Anaimudi
(B) Kalsubai
(C) Ooty
(D) Mahabaleswar
Ans : (A)

285. Nearly half of the total production of sugarcane in India comes from Uttar Pradesh alone, because—
(A) The yield per hectare is the highest in U.P.
(B) The prevailing climate of U.P. is best suited for sugarcane cultivation
(C) Thick variety of sugarcane is cultivated in U.P.
(D) Area under sugarcane cultivation is the highest in U.P.
Ans : (D)

286. The Tigris river flows mainly through—
(A) Turkey
(B) Syria
(C) Iraq
(D) Iran
Ans : (C)

287. Which of the following is the largest producer of mineral oil in the world?
(A) Russia
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) Kuwait
Ans : (B)

288. The mediterranean climate is characterized by—
(A) Humid summers and humid winters
(B) Humid summers and dry winters
(C) Dry summers and dry winters
(D) Dry summers and humid winters
Ans : (D)

289. Which of the following plants is used for making Kaththa ?
(A) Accacia arabica
(B) Accacia Catechu
(C) Accacia senegal
(D) Laccifer lacca
Ans : (B)

290. The lower layer of the atmosphere is known as—
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Troposphere
(D) Stratosphere
Ans : (C)

291. The line joining places which have the same height above mean sea level is called—
(A) Isohyte
(B) Isobar
(C) Contour line
(D) Isohaline
Ans : (C)

292. The cold northern island of Japan is—
(A) Kyushu
(B) Konshu
(C) Kokkaido
(D) Shikoku
Ans : (C)

293. Dandakaranya is located in—
(A) Northern India
(B) Central India
(C) Norther-Eastern India
(D) Southern India
Ans : (B)

294. Which of the following is NOT a coal field?
(A) Raniganj
(B) Jharia
(C) Mosabani
(D) Korba
Ans : (C)

295. The summer solstice in northern hemisphere occurs when the sun is directly overhead at noon on—
(A) The Tropic of Capricorn
(B) The Tropic of Cancer
(C) The equator
(D) None of the above
Ans : (B)

296. Cactus is a plant usually found in—
(A) Flood plains
(B) Semiarid regions
(C) Deltaic regions
(D) Fresh water lakes
Ans : (B)

297. Which of the following is a land locked country ?
(A) Afghanistan
(B) Myanmar (Burma)
(C) Philippines
(D) Israel
Ans : (A)

298. The Bhakra Nangal dam is the largest producer of raw silk?
(A) Ravi
(B) Beas
(C) Sutlej
(D) Yamuna
Ans : (C)

299. Which of the following is the largest producer of raw silk?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (B)

300. The moon revolve round the earth in—
(A) 30 days
(B) 29 days
(C) 28½ days
(D) 27⅓ days
Ans : (D)

301. The Tapti river rises from the—
(A) Vindhyan range
(B) Satpura range
(C) Maikal range
(D) Mahadev hills
Ans : (D)

302. States with long coastal boundaries are producers of salt in India. However half of the country's sea salt production comes from Saurashtra-Gujarat. This is due to—
(A) Its longest coast line
(B) High salinity of sea water
(C) A large number of medium sized ports
(D) Well developed industrial market in the State
Ans : (B)

303. The greatest deposits of loess are found in—
(A) New Zealand
(B) Central Europe
(C) China
(D) Argentina
Ans : (C)

304. The general trend of Isotherms on the globe is—
(A) East-West
(B) North-South
(C) North-East
(D) South-West
Ans : (A)

305. The rate of cooling of ascending air is—
(A) 1°C for every 300 metres
(B) 2°C for every 300 metres
(C) 2.5°C for every 300 metres
(D) 3°C for every 300 metres
Ans : (B)

306. The diameter of moon is—
(A) 3475 km
(B) 3250 km
(C) 3500 km
(D) 3258 km
Ans : (A)

307. A column of air 1 sq. cm. in cross-sectional area extending from sea-level to the top of the atmosphere weights approximately—
(A) 933 g wt
(B) 1033 g wt
(C) 1136 g wt
(D) 1360 g wt
Ans : (B)

308. Drowned glaciated valleys in high latitude regions are known as—
(A) Fiords
(B) Ocean ridges
(C) Sub-marine canyons
(D) Glaciated valleys
Ans : (A)

309. The doldrum area comes into the trade winds In—
(A) Autumn
(B) Summer
(C) Spring
(D) Winter
Ans : (B)

310. Plant cover of Deserts in the world is—
(A) Tall grasses
(B) Perennial Xerophytic shrubs
(C) Dwarf trees
(D) Water storing plants
Ans : (B)

311. Barchan dunes will tend to form in—
(A) Hot deserts
(B) Humid tropical areas
(C) Coastal areas
(D) Polar deserts
Ans : (A)

312. The earth while orbitting makes various angles with the sun's rays. On 22nd December, the rays are vertical on earth at—
(A) 23½°
(B) 30° North
(C) 23½° South
(D) 30° South
Ans : (C)

313. In which period people visit Hammerfest (about 71° N 24°E) to see the beauty of the Midnight Sun?
(A) March to May
(B) June to August
(C) September to November
(D) December to February
Ans : (B)

314. Which one of the following has been formed differently from the other three?
(A) Peat
(B) Bituminus
(C) Lignite
(D) Graphite
Ans : (D)

315. If the locations of two places on the map are 60°N 90°E and 40°S 90°E, what is the direct distance in kilometres between these places?
(A) 11100
(B) 10000
(C) 11000
(D) 11200
Ans : (A)

316. North-Western parts of India get winter rainfall mainly due to—
(A) North-West monsoon
(B) Western disturbances
(C) North-East monsoon
(D) Retreating monsoon
Ans : (B)

317. Which valley is formed as a result of tectonic forces?
(A) 'V' -shaped valley
(B) 'U' -shaped valley
(C) Hanging valley
(D) Rift valley
Ans : (D)

318. Which forest is known for large scale lumbering ?
(A) Equatorial forests
(B) Mixed forests
(C) Coniferous forests
(D) Monsoon forests
Ans : (C)

319. What is the chief characteristics of monsoon climate?
(A) Daily range of temperature very high
(B) Complete reversal of wind direction with the change of season
(C) Annual range of temperature very high
(D) Heavy rainfall mainly during winter
Ans : (B)

320. Soils are usually formed by the process of—
(A) Erosion
(B) Deposition
(C) Denudation
(D) Weathering
Ans : (D)

321. Which group of maps are the large scale maps?
(A) Atlas and wall maps
(B) Themetic and political maps
(C) Physical and weather maps
(D) Cadastral and Tourist Guide maps
Ans : (D)

322. If the R.F. of a map is 1 : 10,00,000 what could be its statement of scale?
(A) 1 cm-l0 km
(B) 1 cm-l km
(C) 1 cm-100 km
(D) 1 cm-l000 km
Ans : (A)

323. Sugar industry in India has a tendency to migrate towards south because—
(A) The soils of South India are highly suitable for cultivation of sugarcane
(B) The climate of South India is more suitable for the production of sugarcane
(C) The per capita consumption of sugar in the South is more than the North
(D) The winds coming from the Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea increase the sugar content in the sugarcane
Ans : (B)

324. Which of the following two rivers are navigable for big distances—
(A) Godavari and Tungbhadra
(B) Narmada and Tapti
(C) Ganga and Brahamputra
(D) Damodar and Kosi
Ans : (C)

325. Gujarat is the largest producer of salt in India because—
(A) Its coastal waters are very saline
(B) It has extensive dry coast
(C) It has extensive shallow seas
(D) Its inhabitants are expert in preparing salt
Ans : (A)

326. Which soil is formed differently from the other three soils?
(A) Regur
(B) Bhabar
(C) Bangar
(D) Khadar
Ans : (A)

327. Amongst the cereals, this has the largest production in India—
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Ric
(D) Barley
Ans : (C)

328. The largest desert in the World is—
(A) Gobi
(B) Kalahari
(C) Patagonia
(D) Sahara
Ans : (D)

329. Ruhr region is situated in—
(A) Poland
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) France
Ans : (C)

330. Earthquake waves are recorded in—
(A) Barograph
(B) Hydrograph
(C) Seismograph
(D) Pantagraph
Ans : (C)

331. Which of these is young folded mountain?
(A) The Himalayas
(B) The Vindhyas
(C) The Nilgiris
(D) The Western Ghats
Ans : (A)

332. Ankaleshwar is famous for—
(A) Gold mining
(B) Petrochemical Industry
(C) Manufacturing Industry
(D) Wheat producton
Ans : (B)

333. Which country imports iron most?
(A) Germany
(B) France
(C) Sweden
(D) Japan
Ans : (D)

334. Chittaranjan is famous for—
(A) Cotton manufacturing Industry
(B) Sugar Industry
(C) Fertilizer Industry
(D) Locomotive Industry
Ans : (D)

335. Which of the following is not a mineral ?
(A) Slate
(B) Limestone
(C) Coal
(D) Calcite
Ans : (A)

336. Which one is the biggest planet of the Solar system?
(A) Mercury
(B) Earth
(C) Pluto
(D) Jupiter
Ans : (D)

337. Rourkela Steel Plant of Orissa gets its iron ore from—
(A) Noamundi
(B) Bonai
(C) Barsua
(D) All above
Ans : (D)

338. 'Meghalaya' is the name given to the region corresponding to—
(A) Lushai Hill Region
(B) Garo-Khasi Hill Region
(C) Nefa Region
(D) Nagaland
Ans : (B)

339. Which of the following is a port in Persian Gulf?
(A) Port Said
(B) Suez Port
(C) Eden Port
(D) Bandar Abbas
Ans : (D)

340. The strait of Hormuz joins which of the following water bodies—
(A) Red sea and Mediterranean sea
(B) Persian Gulf and Gulf of Oman
(C) Caspian sea and Black sea
(D) Gulf of Oman and Arabian sea
Ans : (B)

341. Which of the following lies on the left bank of the Ganga?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Patna
(C) Allahabad
(D) Varanasi
Ans : (D)

342. Bhor Ghat gap gives access to the railway link between—
(A) Mumbai and Jalgaon
(B) Mumbai and Pune
(C) Cochin and Coimbatore
(D) Trivandrum and Kanyakumari
Ans : (B)

343. We generally measure the depth of the Sea in—
(A) Feet
(B) Fathoms
(C) Metres
(D) Nautical miles
Ans : (B)

344. Hanging valleys are formed due to the action of—
(A) River
(B) Glacier
(C) Waves of the ocean
(D) Volcanic eruption
Ans : (B)

345. In the northern hemisphere, due to Ferrel's law the wind is deflected—
(A) Towards its right
(B) Towards its left
(C) Towards its north
(D) Towards its south
Ans : (A)

346. The largest number of jute mills are located along—
(A) Ganga Valley
(B) Brahmaputra Valley
(C) Godavari basin
(D) Hooghly basin
Ans : (D)

347. Mettur dam is built on the—
(A) Godavari river
(B) Krishna river
(C) Kaveri (Cauvery) river
(D) Tungabhadra river
Ans : (C)

348. The phases of moon are caused by—
(A) The rotation of the earth
(B) The rotation of the moon
(C) The revolution of the earth
(D) The revolution of the moon
Ans : (B)

349. The average time interval between successive high tide and low tide is—
(A) 12 hours and 26 minutes
(B) 6 hours and 12 minutes
(C) 24 hours and 52 minutes
(D) 50 minutes
Ans : (C)

350. The planet with the shortest year is—
(A) Earth
(B) Mercury
(C) Mars
(D) Pluto
Ans : (B)

Geography Questions

2010-02-03T20:54:00.000-08:00

Geography Questions

1. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Trans Siberian Railway—Moscow to Vladivostok
(B) Canadian Pacific Railway—Halifax to Vancouver
(C) Orient Express Railway—Paris to Istanbul
(D) Cape Cairo Railway—Warsaw to Madrid

2. Which is the largest canal of the world ?
(A) Suez canal
(B) Panama canal
(C) Kra canal
(D) Bhakra canal

3. Which of the following are connected by Suez canal ?
(A) Red Sea and Dead Sea
(B) Red Sea and Arabian Sea
(C) Red Sea and Mediterranean Sea
(D) Red Sea and Black Sea

4. Which of the following ports is not situated at Pacific coast ?
(A) Vancouver
(B) Los Angeles
(C) San Francisco
(D) Miami

5. Which of the following airports is not situated at New York-Tokyo air route ?
(A) London
(B) Paris
(C) Rome
(D) Panama

6. Which of the following occupations is not related to tertiary economy ?
(A) Transport
(B) Hunting and gathering
(C) Trade
(D) Communication

7. In which region of the world are nights the winters ?
(A) Tundra region
(B) Mediterranean region
(C) Tropical desert region
(D) Equatorial region

8. Which of the following is not the most developed part of the world ?
(A) Most of the Western Europe
(B) Japan
(C) Nepal
(D) South-East Australia

9. The school of Environmental Determinism was born in—
(A) Germany
(B) India
(C) England
(D) France

10. Who was the father of the school of possibilism ?
(A) Davis
(B) Chisolm
(C) Vidal-de-la-Blache
(D) Aristotle

11. Which of the following is secondary consumer ?
(A) Goat
(B) Lion
(C) Reindeer
(D) None of these

12. How much is the area of India ?
(A) 32,87,263 sq. km
(B) 99,76,140 sq. km
(C) 95,97,000 sq. km
(D) 31,40,200 sq. km

13. Which is the southern-most point of India ?
(A) Kanyakumari
(B) Goa
(C) Indira point
(D) Rameshwaram

14. From economic point of view, the most important rocks are—
(A) Dharwar
(B) Gondwana
(C) Vindhyan
(D) Cuddapah

15. The stretch of the Himalayas between the Indus and the Sutlej rivers is called—
(A) The Assam Himalayas
(B) The Punjab Himalayas
(C) The Nepal Himalayas
(D) The Kumaon Himalayas

16. The flood plain along river banks formed by newer alluvium is called—
(A) Bhabar
(B) Khadar
(C) Tarai
(D) Bangar

17. Which river is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’ ?
(A) Kosi
(B) Chambal
(C) Gandak
(D) Son

18. In which state are the Mahadeo hills located ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Chhattisgarh

19. The ‘Kalabaisakhis’ originate during—
(A) Winter season
(B) Rainy season
(C) Period of retreating monsoon
(D) Summers

20. What type of forests are the ‘Sunderbans’ ?
(A) Tidal forests
(B) Monsoon forests
(C) Tropical Evergreen forests
(D) Temperate Evergreen forests

21. The ‘Regur’ soil is—
(A) Red soil
(B) Black soil
(C) Alluvial soil
(D) None of these

22. Which river basin has the maximum amount of water available for irrigation ?
(A) The Ganga
(B) The Indus
(C) The Brahmaputra
(D) Mahanadi

23. Which state of India is the largest producer of Iron ore ?
(A) Karnataka
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh

24. Which mineral is known as ‘Black Gold’ ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Bauxite
(C) Coal
(D) Manganese

25. Which food grain occupies the largest cropped area in India ?
(A) Maize
(B) Wheat
(C) Rice
(D) Sugarcane

26. Which of the following states is the largest producer of wheat ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Haryana
(D) Madhya Pradesh

27. The leading jowar (Sorghum) producing state in India is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Bihar

28. Which of the following is a cash crop ?
(A) Rice
(B) Wheat
(C) Jowar
(D) Sugarcane

29. Which of the following is a fibre crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Jute
(C) Wheat
(D) Maize

30. Which of the following states is the leading producer of sugarcane in India ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar

31. Which Indian state has the highest per hectare production of cotton ?
(A) Haryana
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Punjab

32. Which state is the largest producer of tea in India ?
(A) Assam
(B) West Bengal
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka

33. Which of the following is a basis to divide agriculture into different types ?
(A) Cropping system
(B) Water supply and moisture
(C) Availability of land
(D) All of these

34. In India, the local name of shifting cultivation is—
(A) Jhum
(B) Kumari
(C) Penda
(D) All of these

35. Which city of Madhya Pradesh, as per census of 2001, is most populated ?
(A) Jabalpur
(B) Mandsaur
(C) Bhopal
(D) Indore

36. What is the problem faced by Indian farmers ?
(A) Small and fragmented land holdings
(B) Lack of capital
(C) Faulty marketing system
(D) All of the above

37. Which of the following is not a merit of green revolution ?
(A) Increase in agricultural production
(B) Reduction in the import of food grains
(C) Prosperity of the farmers
(D) Regional imbalance

38. What is National Water Grid Plan ?
(A) To link the Himalayan rivers with peninsular rivers
(B) To link east and west flowing rivers of the peninsular
(C) To link the rivers of India with the rivers of Pakistan
(D) None of the above

39. Which of the following is called the ‘Cottonopolis’ of India ?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Agra
(C) Mumbai
(D) Ahmedabad

40. After crushing the sugarcane, the left over baggasse is used as :
(A) Fuel
(B) Mixed with jaggery (‘gur’)
(C) Mixed in sugar
(D) None of the above

41. Which of the following raw materials is needed for the manufacturing of cement ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Sea shells
(C) Slag from steel plant
(D) All of the above

42. Which of the following cement plants is located in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Satna
(B) Durg
(C) Narnaul
(D) None of these

43. Which of the following factors is responsible for regional disparities in India ?
(A) Regional variations in relief
(B) High incoherence of temperature in different parts of India
(C) Regional variations in the availability of minerals
(D) All of the above

44. Which of the following is not an area of the highest agricultural productivity ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Western Uttar Pradesh

45. Who used the method of ranking coefficient for the first time in India in order to calculate agricultural productivity ?
(A) Prof. Mohammed Shafi
(B) Prof. Jasbir Singh
(C) Prof. M.G. Kendall
(D) Prof. Dudley Stamp

46. Which of the following is a method to eradicate poverty ?
(A) More investment in productive activities
(B) Increased savings
(C) Population control
(D) All of the above

47. Which is the period of rapid growth of India's population ?
(A) 1901–1921
(B) 1921–1951
(C) 1951–1981
(D) 1981–2001

48. Which of the following is an effect of globalization on India ?
(A) Increase in foreign trade
(B) Increase in the number of foreign banks
(C) Direct foreign investment
(D) All of the above

49. Which of the following is a result of ‘Green House Effect’ ?
(A) Rise in temperature
(B) Industrial development
(C) Population growth
(D) None of these

50. Which disease is not caused by drinking polluted water ?
(A) Cholera
(B) Diarrhoea
(C) Jaundice
(D) AIDS

51. Which of the following states of India has the highest sex ratio ?
(A) Chhattisgarh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Nagaland

52. Which one of the following Indian cities has population more than 50 lakh, as per the census of 2001 ?
(A) Rajkot
(B) Ludhiana
(C) Jaipur
(D) Hyderabad

53. Which of the following states does not have common boundary with Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar

54. Which of the following landforms is not found in Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Betul Plateau
(B) Pulicat Lake
(C) Bharner Mountain Range
(D) Kaimur Hills

55. The ‘Bad land’ landform is found in—
(A) Thar desert
(B) Chambal valley
(C) Sundarban delta
(D) Gulf of Kachchh

56. Which state of India is the largest producer of diamond ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Rajasthan

57. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Assam—Magh Bihu
(B) Haryana—Tea Festival
(C) Punjab—Hola Mohalla
(D) Madhya Pradesh—Fair of Nagaji

58. Which state is the only producer of tin in India ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Assam
(D) Madhya Pradesh

59. The total number of districts in Madhya Pradesh is—
(A) 25
(B) 48
(C) 47
(D) 37

60. What is the name of handicrafts emporia centres of Madhya Pradesh ?
(A) Koel
(B) Mayur
(C) Kingfisher
(D) Mriganayanee

61. Which ocean, according to Wegener, surrounded Pangaea on all sides ?
(A) Panthalassa
(B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean
(D) Arctic Ocean

62. Many island arcs and peripheral trenches of the Pacific Ocean are the result of—
(A) The convergence of two continental plates
(B) The convergence of a continental plate and an oceanic plate
(C) The convergence of two oceanic plates
(D) None of the above

63. Exfoliation is most active—
(A) in regions where frost occurs regularly
(B) in limestone areas
(C) at high altitudes
(D) in arid or semi-arid regions, which have a large diurnal range of temperature

64. Which of the following landforms is not formed by weathering ?
(A) Rift valley
(B) Crevasses
(C) Talus
(D) Yardang

65. Which of the following is not a process of river erosion ?
(A) Hydraulic action
(B) Deflation
(C) Corrosion
(D) Attrition

66. Which of the following landforms is formed by glacier ?
(A) Tarn
(B) Lagoon
(C) Lappies
(D) Doline

67. With what are the Inselberg and Hamada associated ?
(A) Glacial erosion
(B) Wind erosion
(C) River erosion
(D) Wind deposition

68. Which of the following is a Caldera lake ?
(A) Lake Chilka
(B) Lake Pulicat
(C) Lake Toba
(D) None of these

69. Which instrument is used for measuring the intensity of an earthquake ?
(A) Seismograph
(B) Hythergraph
(C) Altimeter
(D) None of these

70. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Alfred Wegener—Plate Tectonics
(B) Archdeacon pratt—Continental Drift Theory
(C) William Moris Davis—Geographical Cycle of Erosion
(D) Walter Penck—Theory of Isostasy

71. Which of the following is an example of volcanic mountains ?
(A) Rockies
(B) Fujiyoma
(C) Salt range
(D) Caucasus

72. The example of an intermontane plateau is—
(A) The Plateau of Bolivia
(B) The Plateau of Antrim
(C) The Deccan Plateau
(D) The Plateau of Pantagonia

73. Monadnocks are situated in—
(A) Mountain
(B) Fold mountain
(C) Peneplain
(D) Loess plain

74. That layer of the atmosphere, where ozone gas is found—
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere

75. Radiant energy from the sun that strikes the earth is called—
(A) Solar constant
(B) Insolation
(C) Heat budget
(D) Terrestrial radiation

76. The maximum annual range of temperature occurs over—
(A) Poles
(B) Near the equator
(C) Coastal regions
(D) Asia and North America at latitude 60°N

77. Which of the following are horse latitudes ?
(A) 30°to 35°latitudes in both the hemispheres
(B) 10°North latitude
(C) 60°latitude
(D) None of the above

78. Which of the following statements is not true ?
(A) When the temperature of air increases, the pressure of air decreases
(B) When the temperature of air decreases, the pressure of air increases
(C) A rising thermometer shows a falling barometer
(D) When air rises, the pressure of air increases

79. Which pair is incorrect ?
(A) Fohn—Dry and warm wind
(B) Chinook —Snow eater
(C) Mistral —Winter season
(D) Bora —North America

80. Which of the following is not a cyclone ?
(A) Tornado
(B) Hurricane
(C) Typhoon
(D) Sirocco

81. Which one of the following is not erosional landform of wind ?
(A) Cirque
(B) Inselberg
(C) Mushroom rock
(D) Zeugen

82. Which type of rainfall occurs over north-west India during winter season ?
(A) Cyclonic rainfall
(B) Orographic rainfall
(C) Convectional rainfall
(D) Anticyclonic rainfall

83. In which of the spheres of the atmosphere temperature decreases at the rate of 6.5°centigrade with a height of one thousand metres ?
(A) Mesosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Ozonosphere
(D) Troposphere

84. Ratio between water and land on the earth is —
(A) 78 : 22
(B) 71 : 29
(C) 80 : 20
(D) 20 : 80

85. The northern hemisphere is called as—
(A) The land hemisphere
(B) The water hemisphere
(C) Water planet
(D) None of these

86. The ocean’s greatest depth is—
(A) Aleutian Trench
(B) Japan Trench
(C) Mariana Trench
(D) Java Trench

87. The zone of highest salinity is—
(A) The tropical zone of the sea
(B) The temperate zone of the sea
(C) The polar zone of the sea
(D) None of the above

88. Which one of the following is a warm ocean current ?
(A) Kurushio current
(B) California current
(C) Okhotsk current
(D) Falkland current

89. Which one of the following is an example of coral island ?
(A) Ellice
(B) Barren
(C) Krakatao
(D) Sandwich

90. Which one of the following is an activity of the Eskimos and Lapps ?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Plantation agriculture
(C) Hunting and fishing
(D) None of these

91. Bushman is associated with—
(A) Kalahari desert
(B) Congo basin
(C) Himalaya mountains
(D) Malwa plateau

92. Which one of the following is not a habitat of the Santhals ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Orissa
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Punjab

93. Which state of India has the highest percentage of scheduled tribe population ?
(A) Mizoram
(B) Nagaland
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Assam

94. Which continent has the highest growth of population ?
(A) Africa
(B) South America
(C) Europe
(D) Asia

95. Which is not a sparsely populated area ?
(A) Cold Polar Region
(B) Sahara
(C) South-Eastern Asia
(D) Kalahari

96. Which one of the following has maximum farm-houses ?
(A) India
(B) United States of America
(C) China
(D) Japan

97. Which one of the following is a mining city ?
(A) Kalgoorlie
(B) Oxford
(C) Singapore
(D) Islamabad

98. Which one of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Concentric Zone Theory—E.W. Burgess
(B) Sector Theory—Alfred Weber
(C) Multi-Nuclei Theory—Homer Hoyt
(D) Fused Growth Theory—Griffith Taylor

99. The largest producer of rice in the world is—
(A) India
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) China
(D) Bangladesh

100. Which one of the following geographical conditions is not favourable for wheat cultivation ?
(A) 10°celcius temperature at the time of sowing
(B) Loamy soils
(C) More than 250 cm annual rainfall
(D) Level land

101. Which of the following is also grown as a ‘Zaid’ crop ?
(A) Sugarcane
(B) Cotton
(C) Maize for fodder
(D) Jute

102. Tea can be grown on—
(A) Hill slopes
(B) Plains
(C) Swamps
(D) None of these

103. Which of the following is a plantation crop ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Maize
(C) Barley
(D) Coffee

104. Which of the following is not a rubber producing country ?
(A) Thailand
(B) India
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) None of these

105. Which of the following statements is correct in relation to cotton production ?
(A) Cotton is grown in tropical areas
(B) Sri Lanka is the largest exporter of cotton
(C) Cotton is a dominant crop in areas of over 1000 cm annual rainfall
(D) Cotton can also be grown in Tundra region

106. Which state of India has the largest area under forests ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

107. Grand Bank is a major producer of—
(A) Rice
(B) Marine fisheries
(C) Iron ore
(D) Tea

108. Which of the following is a type of iron ore ?
(A) Anthracite
(B) Lignite
(C) Peat
(D) Limonite

109. Manganese is used for making—
(A) Iron and steel
(B) Paint
(C) China clay
(D) In all these

110. Which state of India is the largest producer of copper ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Assam

111. Bauxite is used for making—
(A) Coal
(B) Gold
(C) Aluminium
(D) None of these

112. Which continent of the world has the maximum known coal reserves ?
(A) North America
(B) South America
(C) Australia
(D) Africa

113. Which of the following pairs is correct ?
(A) Jharia coalfield—Jharkhand
(B) Girdih coalfield—West Bengal
(C) Korba coalfield—Madhya Pradesh
(D) Umaria coalfield—Chhattisgarh

114. In which rocks are the oil reserves mainly found in India ?
(A) Igneous
(B) Sedimentary
(C) Metamorphic
(D) None of these

115. Which of the following pairs does not match ?
(A) Lower Sileru—Andhra Pradesh
(B) Nagarjun Sagar—Karnataka
(C) Koyna—Maharashtra
(D) Pong—Punjab

116. Which of the following pairs is not correct ?
(A) Jog—Waterfall
(B) Ankleshwar—Mineral oilfield
(C) Bokaro—Gold mine
(D) Paradwip—Iron and steel plant

117. Not related to textile industry is—
(A) Spinning
(B) Weaving
(C) Jute
(D) Pulp

118. Which is India's first oil refinery ?
(A) Digboi
(B) Panipat
(C) Trombay
(D) Vishakhapatnam

119. Manchester is known for—
(A) Silk Industry
(B) Woollen Textile
(C) Cotton Textile
(D) None of these

120. Which is the most universal mode of transport ?
(A) Road Transport
(B) Rail Transport
(C) Ocean Transport
(D) None of these

Answers:
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (A) 15. (B) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (A) 28. (D) 29. (B) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (A) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (D) 36. (D) 37. (D) 38. (D) 39. (C) 40. (A)
41. (D) 42. (A) 43. (D) 44. (C) 45. (C) 46. (D) 47. (C) 48. (D) 49. (A) 50. (D)
51. (B) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (B) 55. (B) 56. (A) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (B) 60. (D)
61. (A) 62. (B) 63. (D) 64. (A) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (B) 68. (C) 69. (A) 70. (C)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (C) 74. (B) 75. (B) 76. (D) 77. (A) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (A) 82. (A) 83. (D) 84. (B) 85. (A) 86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (C)
91. (A) 92. (D) 93. (A) 94. (A) 95. (C) 96. (B) 97. (A) 98. (A) 99. (C) 100. (C)
101. (C) 102. (A) 103. (D) 104. (D) 105. (A) 106. (B) 107. (B) 108. (D) 109. (D) 110. (B) 111. (C) 112. (A) 113. (A) 114. (B) 115. (B)
116. (*) In given pairs (C) and (D) pairs are incorrect. So this question is wrong.
117. (D) 118. (A) 119. (C) 120. (A)

1. Which of the following statements about the shape of the Earth is correct ?
(A) It is oblate spheroid
(B) It bulges slightly at the poles
(C) It is a little flattened at the Equator
(D) It is exactly spherical in shape without any bulge at any place

2. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of landforms developed under fluvial cycle of erosion ?
(A) Gorge, flood plain, piedmont plain, delta
(B) Gorge, piedmont plain, flood plain, delta
(C) Gorge, piedmont plain, delta, flood plain
(D) Piedmont plain, gorge, flood plain, delta

3. Spring equinox falls on—
(A) March 21
(B) June 21
(C) September 23
(D) December 22

4. Relative humidity refers to—
(A) Absolute amount of water vapour in the atmosphere
(B) The amount of hygroscopic nuclei in the atmosphere
(C) Saturated vapour pressure
(D) Rate of actual amount of water vapour in the air to the amount it could hold at that temperature

5. Solar energy which reaches the earth surface is called—
(A) Radiated energy
(B) Radiant
(C) Sunlight
(D) Conduction

6. A broad channel where the waters of a river and a sea mingle is called—
(A) a delta
(B) an estuary
(C) a harbour
(D) a strait

7. Assertion (A) : In orographic nature of rainfall, the windward slope of a mountain range gets more rainfall than the lea ward slope.
Reason (R) : The warm and humid air that descends down the slope get warmed up and dry.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

8. During which period did the domestication of plants and animals take place ?
(A) Paleolithic period
(B) Mesolithic period
(C) Neolithic period
(D) Dark age

9. What is the main occupation of Eskimos ?
(A) Summer cultivation
(B) Winter woodwork
(C) Fishing and Hunting
(D) Handicrafts

10. The process of gradual spread over space of people or ideas from the centre of origin is known as—
(A) Distribution
(B) Diffusion
(C) Innovation
(D) Decentralization

11. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(A) Masai — Matagonia
(B) Kirghiz — Kazakhstan
(C) Melanesians — Malaysia
(D) Pygmies — Tanzania

12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Tribe)
(a) Jarwa
(b) Todas
(c) Angami
(d) Saura
List-II (Occupation)
1. Shifting cultivation
2. Terraced cultivation
3. Pastoral
4. Food gathering
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 4 2 1

13. Which one of the following agricultural pattern is not practiced in Western Europe ?
(A) Dairy farming
(B) Mixed farming
(C) Market gardening
(D) Intensive subsistence farming

14. Which of the following statements are correct ?
1. Lignite and low grade bituminous coal were formed during the Quaternary period.
2. Dolomite is used as refractory material and flux in iron and steel industry.
3. Chhota Nagpur Plateau is the most extensive, rich and diversified mineral belt.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below :
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 3

15. Assertion (A) : All biotic resources are renewable.
Reason (R) : Biotic resources can reproduce and regenerate their population as long as environmental conditions remain favourable.
Of these statements—
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(D) (A) is true but (R) is false.

16. Which of the folllowing pairs are correctly matched ?
Industrial Region
Major Industrial Centres

1. Ukraine
Krivoy Rog
2. Kuzbas Novosibirsk
3. Central Asia Karaganda
4. Volga Moscow

Select the correct answer using the codes given below—
Codes :
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3

17. The extensive coffee plantation in Brazil is called—
(A) Fazendas
(B) Trasil
(C) Corrals
(D) Estancias

18. Myanmar is industrially backward because of—
(A) Easy livelihood from agriculture
(B) Uneven land surface
(C) Limited local market
(D) Lack of iron ore and coal

19. If the map drawn to a scale of 1 cm to 30 km is to be enlarged three times, then representative fraction of the enlarged map will be—
(A) 1 : 1,000,000
(B) 1 : 3,000,000
(C) 1 : 6,000,000
(D) 1 : 9,000,000

20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Instruments)
(a) Planimeter
(b) Pantograph
(c) Parallex bar
(d) Clinometer
List-II (Purpose)
1. Measures angles and slopes on ground
2. Calculation of areas on maps
3. Enlargement and reduction of maps
4. Measures the elevation from the photographs
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 2 3 1
(B) 2 1 3 4
(C) 2 3 4 1
(D) 1 3 4 2

21. The contours merge and run as a single line for a short distance in the case of a—
(A) Cliff
(B) Knobe
(C) Gorge
(D) Re-entrant

22. What are Cadastral maps used for ?
(A) To show the boundaries of fields and buildings
(B) To show urban areas
(C) To demarcate wasteland
(D) To demarcate land use pattern

23. Ergograph relates to—
(A) Relative humidity and rainfall
(B) Temperature and rainfall
(C) Climate and growing season of crops
(D) Rainfall and winds

24. A line on a map joining points in the oceans that have equal salinity is called—
(A) Isobath
(B) Isocline
(C) Isohaline
(D) Isogonic

25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Mountains)
(a) Andes
(b) Appalacian
(c) Vesuvius
(d) Catskill
List-II (Type)
1. Old folded
2. New folded
3. Residual
4. Volcanic
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 3 2 1

26. Conventional storms in the Atlantics are known as—
(A) Hurricanes
(B) Typhoons
(C) Cyclones
(D) Tornadoes

27. Consider the following statements and select correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : Podzol soils are poor in bases.
Reason (R) : They develop in tropical areas.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

28. The largest number and widest variety of plants and animals would be found in—
(A) Tropical grasslands
(B) Tropical forests
(C) Temperate forests
(D) Temperate grasslands

29. A natural region has the similarity of—
(A) climate and natural vegetation
(B) climate and occupation
(C) soil and drainage
(D) economic base and natural vegetation

30. Consider the following statements and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The population of the world has experienced an unprecedented growth during the 20th Century.
Reason (R) : Rapid advances in medical technology reduced death rate of population very significantly during the 20th
Century.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

31. Which one of the following is the most significant ecological determinant of population distribution in the world ?
(A) Physical features
(B) Mortality rate
(C) Land fertility
(D) Climate

32. Population growth in most of the developing countries of Asia is determined by—
(A) Birth rate and migration
(B) Migration and death rate
(C) Birth rate, death rate and migration
(D) Birth rate and death rate

33. The people of which country are known as Magyars ?
(A) Hungary
(B) Slovakia
(C) Austria
(D) Romania

34. Non-commercial pastoral nomadism is a way of life in the—
(A) Velds of South Africa
(B) Steppes of Mangolia
(C) Prairies of Canada
(D) Australian downs

35. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : When British Rule ended in India, many Anglo-Indians migrated to Australia.
Reason (R) : Some migrations are caused by religious attraction.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

36. Hunting and fishing is the main occupation of the people living in—
(A) Equatorial regions
(B) Polar regions
(C) Temperate grasslands
(D) Semi-desertic regions

37. There are rich fishing grounds off the coast of Peru and Chile for the reason of—
(A) Shallow continent shelf
(B) Convergence of cold and warm currents
(C) Upwelling of water from deeper layers
(D) Flow of warm ocean currents

38. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below :
Assertion (A) : The boundary marking the termination of tree growth is known as timber line.
Reason (R) : Its location is determined by the amount of moisture, exposure, evaporation and depth of snow.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

39. The breed of sheep which produces the best quality wool is—
(A) Kutchi
(B) Merino
(C) Chokla
(D) Magra

40. Agriculture involving both crops and livestock is called—
(A) Intensive farming
(B) Extensive farming
(C) Mixed farming
(D) Double farming

41. Laterization process forms—
(A) A layer rich in minerals
(B) A layer rich in iron contents
(C) A layer rich in living organisms
(D) A layer rich in calcium

42. Which one of the following countries leads in export of condensed milk ?
(A) India
(B) Belgium
(C) Italy
(D) Netherlands

43. Which one of the following is not true about Singapore, the smallest country in Southeast Asia ?
(A) Has no natural resources
(B) Has the highest per capita income in whole of Southeast Asia
(C) Has non-strategic location
(D) Has well-educated population

44. Which one of the following countries in Southwest Asia has the largest well-irrigated farmland ?
(A) Lebanon
(B) Syria
(C) Iraq
(D) Jordan

45. Which one of the following regions is called as ‘rust belt’ of Japan ?
(A) Northern Honshu
(B) Southern Honshu
(C) Shikoku Islands
(D) Kyushu Islands

46. Which one of the following countries in East Asia adopted ‘Great Leap Forward’ policy for its rapid socio-economic transformation ?
(A) Japan
(B) Korea
(C) Taiwan
(D) China

47. Which one of the following statements is not true about U.S.A. ?
(A) Is the largest market economy in the world
(B) Has a federal system of governance
(C) Is a highly urbanised and metropolized country
(D) Rural areas in Southern America are highly rich

48. Two Russian terms which entered the English language during Mikhail Gorbachev’s restructuring of the Soviet Union in the late 1980s were—
(A) Bolshevik and Menskevik
(B) Perestroika and Zaibatsu
(C) Novgoroad and Glasnost
(D) Perestroika and Glasnost

49. Russia’s main trading partner(s) is/are—
(A) Other CIS countries
(B) China
(C) Western Europe
(D) Japan

50. The Mount Everest falls along the natural boundary between—
(A) India and Nepal
(B) India and China
(C) Nepal and China
(D) Pakistan and China

51. The correct monsoon sequence (Season/Climatic conditions) is—
(A) Summer/Wet; Winter/Dry
(B) Summer/Dry; Winter/Wet
(C) Summer/Cold; Winter/Warm
(D) Summer/Mild; Winter/Wet

52. Which one of the following Indian States has the longest coastline ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Andhra Pradesh

53. In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with—
1. Excessive rainfall
2. Deforestation
3. Excessive Cultivation
4. Overgrazing
Codes :
(A) 1 and 2 are correct
(B) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(D) 2 and 4 are correct

54. Which one of the following types of forest grows in the shaded portion of the given rough outline map of India ?

(A) Mixed deciduous
(B) Tropical Savannah
(C) Semi-arid Scrub lands
(D) Mangrove forests

55. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Offshore fishing in Malabar coast is more developed than that in the Coromandel coast.
Reason (R) : Malabar coast has better facilities to export sea fish to African countries.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

56. The group of States having the forest cover of more than 75 per cent to the total geographical area is—
(A) Assam, Meghalaya, Nagaland
(B) Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland
(C) Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Nagaland
(D) Arunachal Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Nagaland

57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Cattle Breed)
(a) Gir
(b) Alambadi
(c) Dangi
(d) Deoni
List-II (State)
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Maharashtra
3. Gujarat
4. Andhra Pradesh
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 3 1 2 4

58. Which one of the following States has the highest livestock density in the country ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra

59. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Indian agriculture is no longer the gamble of the monsoons.
Reason (R) : There is recent expansion of dry land farming in India.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

60. Which one of the following is associated with Indian Agriculture ?
(A) I.C.A.R.
(B) I.C.C.R.
(C) I.C.M.R.
(D) I.C.W.A.

61. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Name of Crop)
(a) Rice
(b) Jowar
(c) Jute
(d) Coffee
List-II (State Growing)
1. Maharashtra
2. Orissa
3. Karnataka
4. West Bengal
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 1 4 3

62. Which of the following dams has generation of power more than irrigation as its main aim ?
(A) Gandhi Sagar
(B) Hirakud
(C) Periyar
(D) Tunghabhadra

63. Consider the following—
1. Hematite
2. Magnetite
3. Limonite
4. Siderite
Which of the above are iron ore ?
(A) 1 and 2 only
(B) 1, 2 and 3 only
(C) 1, 2 and 4 only
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

64. Which Government agency is responsible for mapping and exploration of minerals in India ?
(A) Survey of India
(B) Geological Survey of India
(C) Minerals Development Corporation
(D) Indian School of Mines

65. Which one of the following is not a source of geothermal energy ?
(A) Hot Geyser
(B) Hot Spring
(C) Coal
(D) Volcano

66. Malvika Steel Plant, the first fully integrated steel plant in North, India, was set up in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Punjab

67. Which of the following places is not associated with fertilizers ?
(A) Panipat
(B) Alwaye
(C) Namrup
(D) Ranchi

68. The New Industrial Policy was introduced in India in the year—
(A) 1987
(B) 1991
(C) 1993
(D) 1998

69. During which Census decade, sex-ratio in India registered the sharpest decline ?
(A) 1911-12
(B) 1921-31
(C) 1951-61
(D) 1961-71

70. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of population of the four metropolis as per 2001 Census ?
(A) Mumbai, Kolkata, Delhi, Chennai
(B) Kolkata, Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai
(C) Kolkata, Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi
(D) Mumbai, Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai

71. What is the most favoured location of settlements in the mountainous regions ?
(A) Valley bottoms
(B) Ridge tops
(C) Valley side slopes
(D) Hill top

72. Largest buyers of goods exported from India is—
(A) Asia and Oceania region
(B) North America
(C) Latin America
(D) Western European region

73. The following countries are the major trading partners of India. Using codes given below their names, put these countries in sequential order of their share in total trade of India—
1. U.S.A.
2. China
3. Hong Kong
4. United Arab Emirates (UAE)
Codes :
(A) 1, 4, 3 and 2
(B) 2, 1, 4 and 3
(C) 4, 3, 1 and 2
(D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

74. Which one of the following public sector agencies in India is not associated with promotion of international trade ?
(A) State Trading Corporation (STC)
(B) Minerals and Metals Trading Corporation (MMTC)
(C) Projects and Equipment Corporation of India (PEC)
(D) Indian Drugs and Pharmaceuticals Limited (IDPL)

75. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The Rajasthan desert is covered with shifting sand dunes.
Reason (R) : For want of rain and surface flowing of water, the work of wind is felt everywhere.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

76. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Summit)
(a) Dodabetta
(b) Nanda Devi
(c) Amarkantak
(d) Guru Sikhar
List-II (Mountain Range)
1. Nilgiri Hills
2. Himalaya Mountains
3. Aravali Range
4. Maikal Range
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 1 3 4
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 1 2 4 3
(D) 4 1 2 3

77. The climate around Bikaner can be described as—
(A) Mediterranean type
(B) Semi-arid steppe
(C) Hot desert
(D) Tropical monsoon

78. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the soils found in Western Rajasthan ?
(A) Contain sand interrupted by low rocky projections
(B) Contain a lot of soluble salts in the top layer
(C) Are the least leached soils and lack in humus also
(D) Are poor in phosphate but rich in nitrogen

79. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the vegetation found in Rajasthan ?
(A) Height of trees and density of plant cover is low
(B) Xerophytic plants are common
(C) The nature of vegetation does not change with variations of habitat
(D) Available forests are a good source of fuel wood and minor forest products

80. Which one of the following statements is not true about Western Arid region of Rajasthan ?
(A) This is the largest area size region in the State
(B) Bajra is the most prominent crop of the region
(C) Rural settlements are highly disperse and small in size
(D) Rainfall goes on increasing as one moves from east to west direction in the region

81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I (Livestock Breed)
(a) Rathi
(b) Kankrej
(c) Mallani
(d) Gir
List-II (District)
1. Nagaur
2. Jaisalmer
3. Sirohi
4. Ajmer
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 2 3 1 4

82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below—
List-I (Mining Area)
(a) Lunkaransaur
(b) Zawar Mines
(c) Deogarh
(d) Champa-gudha
List-II (Mineral Wealth)
1. Berryllium
2. Gypsum
3. Lead and Zinc
4. Mica
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 4 2 1 3

83. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) According to 2001 Census, the largest and the smallest population size districts in Rajasthan State are Jaipur and Jaisalmer, respectively
(B) At 2001 Census, the largest and the smallest area size districts in Rajasthan State were Jaisalmer and Dholpur, respectively
(C) Five new districts were created in Rajasthan between 1991 and 2001 Census decades
(D) According to 2001 Census, the highest and the lowest literacy districts in Rajasthan State were Jaipur and Dungarpur, respectively

84. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of decadal growth of population in the four districts of Rajasthan State during 1991-2001 ?
(A) Jaipur, Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Barmer
(B) Jaisalmer, Barmer, Jaipur, Bikaner
(C) Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Barmer, Jaipur
(D) Bikaner, Barmer, Jaipur, Jaisalmer

85. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below—
List-I (Lake)
(a) Nakki Talab
(b) Sambhar
(c) Pichola
(d) Gadsisar
List-II (District)
1. Jaisalmer
2. Udaipur
3. Sirohi
4. Jaipur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1

86. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Rajasthan is mainly a region of interior drainage.
Reason (R) : It is mainly a structural basin surrounded by hill ranges.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

87. Which one of the following statements is not correct about River Luni ?
(A) The Luni is a river of Western Rajasthan
(B) It originates in the Pushkar valley of the Aravalli Range in Ajmer District
(C) It is also known as Lavanavari river
(D) The Luni and its tributaries drain the eastern slopes of the Aravali range

88. The Rajasthan Canal (Indira Gandhi Canal) draws its water from the river—
(A) Sutlej
(B) Yamuna
(C) Chambal
(D) Sutlej and Beas

89. Chambal is the joint project of—
(A) Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh and Bihar
(C) Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan
(D) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

90. Which one of the following problems is not encountered in Indira Gandhi Canal command area ?
(A) Increase in soil salinity
(B) Progressive waterlogging
(C) Aeolian silting of canal
(D) Decline in water supply

91. What are Didwana and Pachpadra famous for ?
(A) Copper
(B) Lead and Zinc
(C) Salt
(D) Gypsum

92. In List-I industrial sectors has been listed, while in List-II are listed the location of industrial complexes. Match the two lists using the correct code, given ahead—
List-I (Industrial Sector)
(a) Gems and Jewellery
(b) Hosiery
(c) Ceramics
(d) Textiles
List-II (Location of Industrial Complex)
1. Pali
2. Khara (Bikaner)
3. Bhiwadi
4. Jaipur
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 3 2 1

93. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence in descending order of irrigated area in percentage under the four crops grown in Rajasthan State ?
(A) Wheat, Gram, Oilseeds, Cotton
(B) Wheat, Cotton, Gram, Oilseeds
(C) Oilseeds, Wheat, Gram, Cotton
(D) Cotton, Oilseeds, Wheat, Gram

94. Rajasthan, which is one of the five top ranking States in wind power potentials, has a number of very good wind power sites in the State. Match the wind power sites with districts of their location, using the correct code.
List-I (Wind power site)
(a) Devgarh
(b) Harhnath
(c) Khodal
(d) Mohangarh
List-II (District of Location)
1. Sikar
2. Barmer
3. Jaisalmer
4. Chittorgarh
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 1 2 3

95. National Highway No. 15 linking Punjab with Gujarat State passes through the territory of a number of districts in Rajasthan State. The number of such districts in the State is—
(A) Five
(B) Six
(C) Four
(D) Seven

96. Thar link express train running between Jodhpur and Munabao railway stations covers nearly a distance of—
(A) 150 km
(B) more than 200 km
(C) less than 300 km
(D) more than 300 km

97. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The area falling east of the Aravalli in Rajasthan State has higher road density than that of those falling west of the Aravalli.
Reason (R) : Relief plays an important effect in regional distribution of roads in the State of Rajasthan.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

98. Which one of the following statements is not correct about the regional distribution of rural settlements in Rajasthan State ?
(A) Rural settlements in the Rajasthan plain are small, compact and sparsely distributed due to limited water supply and
cultivable land
(B) In excessive arid areas having sand dunes, hamleted settlements are noticed near the water-bodies
(C) In eastern parts of Rajasthan large compact villages are a common sight
(D) Indira Gandhi Canal has, however, failed to encourage compact settlements similar to Punjab in northwestern parts of Rajasthan

99. The total number of urban settlements in Rajasthan State, according to 2001 Census has been—
(A) more than 300
(B) between 150 and 200
(C) more than 250
(D) between 200 and 250

100. Which one of the following is not the objective of forestry in Rajasthan State during the XI Five Year Plan ?
(A) To achieve 33•0 per cent tree cover in the State by 2016
(B) To check desertification and restore the ecological status of the Aravallis
(C) To conserve gene-pool and improve bio-diversity of flora and fauna
(D) To elicit people’s participation for institutionalization of Joint Forest Management (JFM)

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (C) 28. (A) 29. (A) 30. (A)
31. (C) 32. (D) 33. (A) 34. (A) 35. (D) 36. (B) 37. (B) 38. (C) 39. (B) 40. (C)
41. (B) 42. (D) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (D) 46. (D) 47. (D) 48. (D) 49. (C) 50. (C)
51. (A) 52. (D) 53. (D) 54. (D) 55. (A) 56. (C) 57. (D) 58. (C) 59. (C) 60. (A)
61. (D) 62. (A) 63. (D) 64. (B) 65. (C) 66. (C) 67. (D) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (A)
71. (B) 72. (A) 73. (B) 74. (D) 75. (B) 76. (C) 77. (C) 78. (D) 79. (D) 80. (D)
81. (D) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (C) 85. (D) 86. (C) 87. (D) 88. (D) 89. (C) 90. (D)
91. (C) 92. (D) 93. (B) 94. (D) 95. (A) 96. (A) 97. (C) 98. (A) 99. (D) 100. (C)

1. ‘Kayals’ are found in—
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)

2. Which one of the following rivers originates from Amarkantak ?
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Narmada
(C) Son
(D) Godavari
Ans : (B)

3. Which one of the following ports is the leading exporter of iron ore ?
(A) Marmagaon
(B) Paradwip
(C) Vishakhapatnam
(D) Kochi
Ans : (C)

4. Which one of the following types of forests occupies the highest percentage in India ?
(A) Tropical deciduous
(B) Savanna and desert vegetation
(C) Equatorial evergreen
(D) Conifers and pines
Ans : (A)

5. Which one of the following is the highest peak of India ?
(A) Nanda Devi
(B) Kanchanjunga
(C) Makalu
(D) Everest
Ans : (A)

6. Noonmati Oil Refinery of India is located in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Assam
(D) Kerala
Ans : (C)

7. Isohyets are—
(A) Lines on a map showing equal rainfall
(B) Lines on a map having same mean temperature
(C) Lines on a map having same barometric pressure
(D) Lines on a map showing equal height from mean sea level
Ans : (A)

8. Which one of the following is not a suitable method for showing urban population ?
(A) Circle
(B) Shade
(C) Sphere
(D) Divided circle
Ans : (D)

9. Arrange the following States in respect of coal reserves and select the correct answer from the code given below—
1. Jharkhand
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Orissa
4. West Bengal
Codes :
(A) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1 3 4 2
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (B)

10. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The Bhanger land belongs to the Pleistocene period.
Reason (R) : The Karewas of Kashmir are the Pleistocene deposits.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

11. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The concept of differential heating about the origin of Indian Monsoon was given by Helley.
Reason (R) : The concept of differential heating explains the origin of Indian monsoon.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

12. Namdhapa Tiger Reserve is in the State of—
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Bihar
Ans : (A)

13. Pensi La connects—
(A) Srinagar with Leh
(B) Sikkim with Tibet
(C) Himachal Pradesh with Kargil
(D) Himachal Pradesh with Tibet
Ans : (A)

14. Agricultural Location Theory was developed by—
(A) Von Thunen, J.H.
(B) Stamp, D.
(C) Thompson, W.S.
(D) Weber, A.
Ans : (A)

15. The term ‘Conurbation’ was coined by—
(A) Harvey, D.
(B) Patrick Geddes
(C) Dickinson, R. E.
(D) Ullman
Ans : (B)

16. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
(A) Mega City — P. Geddes
(B) Primate City — C. O. Sauer
(C) C. B. D. — C. C. Colby
(D) Rank Size Rule — G. K. Zipf
Ans : (D)

17. The Theory of Industrial Location was propounded by—
(A) Alfred Weber
(B) C. C. Colby
(C) Rostov, W. W.
(D) Christaller, W.
Ans : (A)

18. Which one of the following States is the leading producer of bauxite ?
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Orissa
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (B)

19. Which one of the following States is the leading producer of Gypsum ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Orissa
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)

20. In which of the following States the highest percentage of Wallastonite is mined ?
(A) Rajasthan
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Bihar
Ans : (A)

21. The first scientific attempt for the demarcation of agricultural regions of the world was made by—
(A) Stamp, D.
(B) Whittlesey, D.
(C) Hartshorne
(D) Johnston, R. J.
Ans : (B)

22. Which one of the following is correctly matched ?
(A) Kaiga — Tamil Nadu
(B) Kalpakkam —Andhra Pradesh
(C) Rawatbhata —Rajasthan
(D) Kundankulam —Kerala
Ans : (C)

23. Singhbhum Iron Ore Fields lie in the State of—
(A) Orissa
(B) Jharkhand
(C) Karnataka
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (B)

24. Which one of the following areas has the largest petroleum deposits in India ?
(A) Mumbai-High
(B) Godavari Basin
(C) Gujarat Coast
(D) Brahmaputra Valley
Ans : (A)

25. In which of the following States uranium is not found ?
(A) Meghalaya
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Assam
(D) Uttarakhand (Uttaranchal)
Ans : (D)

26. Which of the following districts in Rajasthan fall under Bwhw climatic region ?
(A) Jaisalmer, Bikaner, Ganganagar
(B) Dungarpur, Banswara, Jhalawar
(C) Dholpur, Karauli, Bharatpur
(D) Jaipur, Ajmer, Bhilwara
Ans : (A)

27. Which one of the following is not suitable for the generation of geo-thermal energy in India ?
(A) East coast of Tamil Nadu
(B) Puga Valley of Ladakh
(C) Manikaran Area (Himachal Pradesh)
(D) West coast of Maharashtra
Ans : (A)

28. Ideal conditions for generation of solar energy is found in—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Uttarakhand
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (B)

29. Which one of the following lakes is of potable (sweet) water ?
(A) Sambhar Lake
(B) Dhebar Lake
(C) Phalodi
(D) Didwana
Ans : (B)

30. Which one of the following is not correctly matched ?
(A) Alwar —Sabi, Ruparel
(B) Udaipur —Banas, Berach
(C) Karauli —Jagar, Gambhir
(D) Dungarpur —Banganga, Morel
Ans : (D)

31. Lohagarh Fort is located at—
(A) Jaipur
(B) Alwar
(C) Bharatpur
(D) Dholpur
Ans : (C)

32. Which one of the following districts has the highest percentage of literacy (2001) ?
(A) Jaipur
(B) Kota
(C) Udaipur
(D) Sikar
Ans : (B)

33. Jayal Gravel Ridge is found in the district of—
(A) Barmer District
(B) Nagaur District
(C) Jalore District
(D) Churu District
Ans : (B)

34. Bankapatti area is found in the district of—
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Ajmer
(C) Nagaur
(D) Jhunjhunu
Ans : (C)

35. The source of the Chambal river is—
(A) Kumbhalgarh Plateau
(B) Mt. Abu
(C) Alwar Hills
(D) Janapau Hills
Ans : (D)

36. Which one of the following districts has highest percentage of forest area ?
(A) Karauli
(B) Udaipur
(C) Sirohi
(D) Banswara
Ans : (A)

37. Which one of the following countries supported Greening Aravalli Project in Rajasthan ?
(A) Germany
(B) Norway
(C) Japan
(D) England
Ans : (C)

38. Desert Development Programme in Rajasthan was started in—
(A) 1974-75
(B) 1982-83
(C) 1977-78
(D) 1986-87
Ans : (C)

39. ‘Lathi Series’ belongs to—
(A) Triassic Period
(B) Permian Period
(C) Silurian Period
(D) Ordovician Period
Ans : (A)

40. ‘Khoh Dariba’ region is associated with the mining of—
(A) Lead and Zinc
(B) Copper
(C) Manganese
(D) Silver
Ans : (B)

41. Which one of the following rivers drains into Sambhar Lake ?
(A) Kantli
(B) Bandi
(C) Mendha
(D) Mashi
Ans : (C)

42. Rajasthan is the leading producer in the country in—
(A) Gram
(B) Mustard
(C) Cotton
(D) Wheat
Ans : (B)

43. Which one of the following districts are not included in Drought Prone Area Programme ?
(A) Kota—Baran
(B) Dungarpur—Banswara
(C) Tonk—Sawai Madhopur
(D) Alwar—Bharatpur
Ans : (D)

44. Which one of the districts has the largest deposits of Tungesten ?
(A) Ajmer
(B) Nagaur
(C) Sirohi
(D) Jaipur
Ans : (B)

45. Which one of the following districts is the leading producer of Maize ?
(A) Chittorgarh
(B) Bhilwara
(C) Raj Samand
(D) Udaipur
Ans : (D)

46. Which one of the following trees is known as ‘Kalp Taru’ of Rajasthan’ ?
(A) Sagawan
(B) Mango
(C) Neem
(D) Khejari
Ans : (D)

47. Main Sanctuary of ‘Dangland’ is—
(A) Bhainsrorgarh Sanctuary
(B) Kaladevi Wildlife Sanctuary
(C) Sita Mata Sanctuary
(D) Sajjangarh Wildlife Sanctuary
Ans : (B)

48. Menal Waterfall is located in the district of—
(A) Chittorgarh
(B) Bundi
(C) Bhilwara
(D) Rajsamand
Ans : (C)

49. Which one of the following districts accounts for lowest density of population (2001) ?
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Jaisalmer
(C) Barmer
(D) Jalore
Ans : (B)

50. Dabok Airport is associated with—
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Jaipur
(C) Kota
(D) Udaipur
Ans : (D)

51. Which one of the following States has the highest growth rate of population (1991–2001) ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (C)

52. Which one of the following districts has the highest growth rate of urban population (1991–2001) ?
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Bhilwara
(C) Jaipur
(D) Hanumangarh
Ans : (C)

53. Arrange the following in a chronological order and select the correct answer using the code given below—
1. Gunj
2. Mindal
3. Riss
4. Wurm
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 1 2 4 3
Ans : (A)

54. The dinosaurs first appeared on the earth surface during the—
(A) Permian
(B) Jurassic
(C) Cretaceous
(D) Triassic
Ans : (B)

55. Which one of the following is the most fine grained extrusive rock ?
(A) Granite
(B) Peridotite
(C) Basalt
(D) Conglomerate
Ans : (C)

56. The ‘Aurora Borealis’ occurs in the—
(A) Exosphere
(B) Ionosphere
(C) Ozonosphere
(D) Stratosphere
Ans : (B)

57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below—
List-I (Ridge/Plateau)
(a) Amsterdam—St. Paul Plateau
(b) Challenger Rise
(c) Dolphin Rise
(d) Juan De-Fuca
List-II (Ocean)
1. North Pacific Ocean
2. Indian Ocean
3. South Atlantic Ocean
4. North Atlantic Ocean
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 4 3 1
(B) 2 3 4 1
(C) 3 2 1 4
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (B)

58. Which one of the following has the largest number of satellites ?
(A) Uranus
(B) Neptune
(C) Jupiter
(D) Saturn
Ans : (C)

59. “The Present is the Key to the Past.” This statement was made by—
(A) Dutton
(B) Strahler
(C) Hutton
(D) Dana
Ans : (C)

60. Consider the following statement and select correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The islands along the mid Atlantic Ridge are highly prone to volcanic activity.
Reason (R) : The sea floor spreading is the main cause of earthquakes in the Atlantic Ocean.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (B)

61. The salinity of the oceans is maximum in the—
(A) Equatorial region
(B) Sub-Tropical region
(C) Sub-Polar region
(D) Tropical region
Ans : (B)

62. Arrange the following lakes in descending order according to area and select the correct answer using the code given below—
1. Huron
2. Michigan
3. Superior
4. Victoria
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Ans : (A)

63. Which one of the following soils has the largest percentage of the land area of the world ?
(A) Alfisols
(B) Entisols
(C) Inceptisols
(D) Aridisols
Ans : (D)

64. The concept of Peneplain was propounded by—
(A) Penck
(B) L. C. King
(C) Davis
(D) Lawson
Ans : (C)

65. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below—
List-I (Country)
(a) Austria
(b) Albania
(c) Hungary
(d) Slovenia
List-II (Capital)
1. Budapest
2. Ljubljana
3. Vienna
4. Tirana
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 4 2 3 1
Ans : (A)

66. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Tokyo is the largest urban centre
(B) Kyushu is bigger than Shikoku
(C) Japan consists of 4000 islands
(D) The Ainu of Hokkaido belongs to yellow race
Ans : (C)

67. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) Cook Strait lies between North and South Islands of New Zealand
(B) Bass Strait lies between Australia and New Zealand
(C) Foveaux Strait lies between Stewart Island and North Island of New Zealand
(D) Torres Strait lies between New Guinea and Australia
Ans : (B)

68. The Tropic of Capricorn passes through which one of the following countries ?
(A) Botswana
(B) Swaziland
(C) Zambia
(D) Zimbabwe
Ans : (A)

69. Which one of the following is not correct ?
(A) Rio de Janeiro is known as the magnificent city
(B) Rio de Janeiro has been the capital of Brazil
(C) Sao Paulo is a Mega City
(D) Sao Paulo is a Sea-Port
Ans : (D)

70. Brazilian Plateau is rich in—
(A) Petroleum
(B) Copper
(C) Nickel
(D) Iron ore
Ans : (D)

71. Which one of the following is the largest city of Africa ?
(A) Durban
(B) Lagos
(C) Nairobi
(D) Cairo
Ans : (D)

72. The marshy lands of rivers are known as ‘Sudd’ in which of the following countries ?
(A) Sudan
(B) Ethiopia
(C) Nigeria
(D) Egypt
Ans : (A)

73. Which one of the following is not a ‘land-locked’ country ?
(A) Mali
(B) Niger
(C) Chad
(D) Sudan
Ans : (D)

74. The island of Socotra belongs to—
(A) Yemen
(B) United Arab Emirates (UAE)
(C) Oman
(D) Saudi Arabia
Ans : (A)

75. Mt. Kota Kinabalu is the highest peak in—
(A) Myanmar
(B) Indonesia
(C) Thailand
(D) Malaysia
Ans : (D)

76. Which one of the following countries has the highest density of population ?
(A) Japan
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (A)

77. Which one of the following is the most busy navigable river ?
(A) Volga
(B) Sein
(C) Rhine
(D) Danube
Ans : (C)

78. Hoover Dam is located on—
(A) Colorado River
(B) Nile River
(C) Rhine River
(D) Niger River
Ans : (A)

79. World’s deepest Ocean Trench is—
(A) Kermadec Trench
(B) Marianas Trench
(C) Indonesian Trench
(D) Kuril Trench
Ans : (B)

80. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below—
List-I (Climatic type)
(a) Tropical Rain forest
(b) Tropical Savanna climate
(c) Mediterranean climate
(d) Humid Sub-tropical climate
List-II (Region)
1. Just at the fringe of Sahara
2. Western Africa near Equator
3. North-West USA
4. South Africa
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 1 3 4
(D) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (B)

81. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below—
List-I (Ocean Current)
(a) Agulhas Current
(b) El Nino Current
(c) Kuroshio Current
(d) Benguela Current
List-II (Name of Ocean)
1. North Pacific Ocean
2. South Atlantic Ocean
3. South Pacific Ocean
4. Indian Ocean
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 3 4 2 1
Ans : (A)

82. The International Airport of Washington D.C. is known as—
(A) George Bush International Airport
(B) Dulles International Airport
(C) Heathrow International Airport
(D) Gatwick International Airport
Ans : (B)

83. The concept of Continental Drift was propounded by—
(A) Holms
(B) Wegener
(C) Kober
(D) Daly
Ans : (B)

84. The Tetrahedral Theory was propounded by—
(A) Wegener
(B) Joly
(C) Lowthian Green
(D) Jaffreys
Ans : (C)

85. The author of Anthropogeography was—
(A) Ratzel F.
(B) Semple
(C) Ritter C.
(D) Huntington
Ans : (A)

86. The main contribution of Al-Idris was in the field of—
(A) Astronomy
(B) Cartography
(C) Historical Geography
(D) Physical Geography
Ans : (B)

87. The prime meridian of the classical Indian geographers used to be drawn through the city of—
(A) Patliputra
(B) Ujjain
(C) Indra Prastha
(D) Kannauj
Ans : (B)

88. Which one of the following has the highest rank in Human Development ?
(A) Vietnam
(B) Malaysia
(C) Philippines
(D) Indonesia
Ans : (B)

89. The shelter of Badwins tribe is known as—
(A) Khaima
(B) Igloo
(C) Kraal
(D) Reed-Hut
Ans : (D)

90. “Man is a product of earth surface.” This statement was made by—
(A) Semple
(B) Kant
(C) Humboldt
(D) Ritter
Ans : (A)

91. Which one of the following is the longest river in the world ?
(A) Nile
(B) Amazon
(C) Niger
(D) Congo
Ans : (A)

92. Which one of the following is a Mega City in the world ?
(A) Tokyo
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Nairobi
(D) Frankfurt
Ans : (A)

93. The R.F. of 45 N/13 will be—
(A) 1 : 25,000
(B) 1 : 10,000
(C) 1 : 50,000
(D) 1 : 100,000
Ans : (C)

94. The line joining the points of equal height above sea level is known as—
(A) Isobar
(B) Isotherm
(C) Isohyet
(D) Contour
Ans : (D)

95. Which one of the following statements is not correct ?
(A) For Baltic region and France the conical projection with two standard parallel is most appropriate
(B) Trans-Siberian railways can best be shown on conical projection with one standard parallel
(C) International map projection is a modified Bonne’s projection
(D) Bonne’s projection is a modified conical projection
Ans : (C)

96. The concept of base level was given by—
(A) Powell
(B) Davis
(C) King
(D) Penck
Ans : (A)

97. The principle of Interaction was introduced by—
(A) Martone
(B) Richthofen
(C) Brunhes
(D) Vidal de La Blache
Ans : (C)

98. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : The Mollweid Projection was propounded by a British Cartographer.
Reason (R) : Mollweid Projection is an equal area projection.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (D)

99. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below—
List-I (Projection)
(a) Bonne’s Projection
(b) Gall’s Projection
(c) Cylindrical Projection
(d) Mercator’s Projection
List-II (Property)
1. Length of equator is 2πR
2. Pole is a straight line
3. All parallels are standard parallels
4. The scale along the parallels and meridians is the same at a point
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 2 4 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 1 3 2 4
Ans : (A)

100. Consider the following statement and select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Assertion (A) : Hydergraph is based on rainfall and temperature data was developed by
Griffith Taylor.
Reason (R) : Hydergraph was developed by Griffith Taylor.
Codes :
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans : (A)

INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS

2010-02-01T23:24:00.000-08:00

INDIAN POLITY QUESTIONS

1. Indian Republic is not the product of—
(A) Political Revolution
(B) Discussion
(C) Made by a body of eminent representatives of the people
(D) All the above

2. For the first time, British Parliament enacted which laws for the British Government to govern in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1857
(B) Govt. of India Act 1858
(C) Govt. of India Act 1891
(D) Govt. of India Act 1888

3. The British Secretary of the State governed India through which Institution—
(A) Executive Council
(B) Parliament
(C) Governor assisted by an Executive Council
(D) Governor General appointed by an Executive Council

4. Under the British Rule in India, Governor General was responsible to—
(A) Secretary of India
(B) Secretary of Britain
(C) Secretary of State
(D) None of the above

5. Morely-Minto reform is associated with which Act—
(A) Indian Council Act 1856
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1908
(D) Indian Council Act 1912

6. During the British rule, which community got separate representation from which Act—
(A) Christian Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(B) Buddhist Community & Indian Council Act 1907
(C) Muslim Community & Indian Council Act 1909
(D) All the above

7. During the British period, under which Act election was introduced in India—
(A) Indian Council Act 1913
(B) Indian Council Act 1909
(C) Indian Council Act 1906
(D) Indian Council Act 1907

8. Montagu-Chelmsford report is associated with which Govt of India Act—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1918
(B) Govt. of India Act 1920
(C) Govt. of India Act 1930
(D) Govt. of India Act 1919

9. When was the Indian National Congress established—
(A) 1888
(B) 1885
(C) 1889
(D) 1890

10. Under the British Rule when ‘Dyarchy Governing System’ was introduced for the first time—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1919
(B) Govt. of India Act 1929
(C) Govt. of India Act 1925
(D) Govt. of India Act 1935

11. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, which communities were provided separate representation in the Electorate system—
(A) Sikh, Europeans
(B) Indian Christians
(C) Anglo-Indians
(D) All the above

12. Under which Government of India Act, Federation and Provincial Autonomy were introduced in India—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1935
(B) Govt. of India Act 1930
(C) Govt. of India Act 1940
(D) Govt. of India Act 1936

13. Under the British rule, how many acts came into operation—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1858, Indian Council Act 1861
(B) Indian Council Act 1892, Indian Council Act 1809
(C) Govt. of India Act 1919, Govt. of India Act 1935, Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) All the above

14. Which Act provided India to become an Independent state—
(A) Indian Independence Act 1949
(B) Indian Independence Act 1946
(C) Indian Independence Act 1947
(D) None of the above

15. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, the Indian Federation worked through which kind of list—
(A) Federal List
(B) Provincial List
(C) Concurrent List
(D) All the above

16. In the Govt. of India Act 1835, Federal List contained which kind of subjects—
(A) External Affairs
(B) Currency and Coinage
(C) Naval, Military and Force, Census
(D) All the above

17. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, provincial list included which kind of subjects—
(A) Police
(B) Provincial Public Service
(C) Education
(D) All the above

18. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, which subjects are included in the concurrent list—
(A) Criminal Law & Procedure, Civil Procedure
(B) Marriage
(C) Divorce, Arbitration
(D) All the above

19. Under the Govt. of India Act 1935, who had the power to proclaim emergency—
(A) Governor General
(B) General of India
(C) Governor of the State
(D) None of the above

20. In the Govt. of India Act 1935, who was authorised to make a law on the Provincial subject—
(A) Governor
(B) Governor General
(C) Federal Legislature
(D) None of the above

21. Which Constitution is in the written form for the first time by an elected body during the Modern period—
(A) India
(B) America
(C) Britain
(D) France

22. Who was the de facto Prime Minister at the time of evolution of the Indian Constituent Assembly—
(A) Moti Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patal
(C) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(D) H. N. Kunzru

23. Who boicotted the Indian Constituent Assembly—
(A) Unionist Muslim
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Scheduled Caste
(D) Krishak Poja

24. In the Constituent Assembly, which parties were members—
(A) Congress, Muslim League, Unionist Muslim
(B) Unionist Scheduled Caste, Krishak Poja, Scheduled Castes Federation, Sikh (Non Congress)
(C) Communists, Independents
(D) All the above

25. Which party said that Indian Constituent Assembly does not have a fully representative character—
(A) Congress
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Muslim
(D) Unionist Scheduled Castes

26. After independence, who decided to determine the Future Constitution of India—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) None of the above

27. Whom the Indian Constituent Assembly represented—
(A) Fully representative of the Hindus
(B) Fully representative of the State in India
(C) Fully representative of the Provinces in India
(D) Fully representative of the States and Provinces in India

28. Through which offer, the British Government authoritatively supported a Constituent Assembly for making the Indian Constitution
(A) August offer
(B) Viceroy offer
(C) Sir Strafford Cripps offer
(D) None of the above

29. Who supported the views of the Constituent Assembly for making the Indian Constitution—
(A) Sardar Patel
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Jinnah
(D) None of the above

30. Gandhiji wrote which article in the Harijan of 19th November 1939 to support the formation of Constituent Assembly for making the Constitution of India—
(A) The need of Constitution
(B) Formation of Constituent Assembly
(C) The only way
(D) The way

31. Which Party supported formation of a Constituent Assembly—
(A) Congress
(B) Muslim League
(C) Unionist Muslim
(D) Unionist Scheduled Castes

32. When did Constituent Assembly adopt a national Flag—
(A) 22nd Aug. 1947
(B) 22nd July 1947
(C) 22nd Jan. 1947
(D) 22nd Oct. 1947

33. Did the Constituent Assembly exist at the time of Indian Independence—
(A) No
(B) Only idea emerged
(C) Yes
(D) Uncertainty regarding formation of said Assembly

34. Who was the last British Governor General who addressed the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Lord Attlee
(B) Lord Mount Batten
(C) Lord Bentick
(D) None of the above

35. When did the Constituent Assembly passed a resolution for translation of the Constitution of India into Hindi and other many languages of India—
(A) 17th Sep. 1949
(B) 17th Oct. 1949
(C) 17th Nov. 1949
(D) 17th Dec. 1949

36. What was the last session of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Eleventh session
(B) Twelfth session
(C) Sixteenth session
(D) Seventh session

37. When was the last Twelfth session of the Constituent Assembly held—
(A) 24th Jan. 1950
(B) 24th Feb. 1950
(C) 24th April 1950
(D) 24th Dec. 1950

38. How many copies of the Constitution were printed after the Constituent Assembly framed the same—
(A) Two
(B) One
(C) Three
(D) Four

39. Which song was sang in the Constituent Assembly before its Adjournment sine die—
(A) Jana Gana Man
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

40. For how many years, months and days, did the Constituent Assembly work on the Constitution of India—
(A) 2 Years, 11 months and 19 Days
(B) 3 Years, 12 months and 16 Days
(C) 4 Years, 18 months and 6 Days
(D) None of the above

41. How many number of sessions were held in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Twenty sessions
(B) Twelve sessions
(C) Twenty-five sessions
(D) Twenty-eight sessions

42. How many Articles and Schedules were in the First Draft Constitution presented by the Drafting Committee to the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 318 Articles and 7 Schedules
(B) 319 Articles ad 10 Schedules
(C) 315 Articles and 8 Schedules
(D) 399 Articles and 5 Schedules

43. In the final form of the Constitution adopted by the Constituent Assembly, how many Articles and Schedules were there—
(A) 397 Articles and 9 Schedules
(B) 395 Articles and 4 Schedules
(C) 396 Articles and 7 Schedules
(D) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules

44. In the Constituent Assembly how many total number of Amendments were proposed in the Draft Constitution—
(A) Approx. 7935
(B) Approx. 7892
(C) Approx. 7365
(D) Approx. 2473

45. What was the expenditure made by the Constituent Assembly while framing the Constitution of India—
(A) Rs. 63,96,729
(B) Rs. 64,98,725
(C) Rs. 69,92,769
(D) Rs. 65,92,926

46. How many visitors came to witness the proceedings of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 52,500
(B) 53,000
(C) 54,000
(D) 54,500

47. Who presented the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Motilal Nehru
(C) Sardar Ballabah Bhai Patel
(D) None of the above

48. When was the First Draft of the Constitution of India proposed—
(A) Oct. 1945
(B) Oct. 1947
(C) Oct. 1946
(D) Oct. 1948

49. Who prepared the first draft Constitution of India—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Gandhiji
(C) Advisory Branch of the Constituent Assembly
(D) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel

50. Who was the Chairman of the Draft Committee of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Jagjivan Ram
(D) None of the above

Answers :
1.(A) 2.(B) 3.(D) 4.(C) 5.(B) 6.(C) 7.(B) 8.(D) 9.(B) 10.(A)
11.(D) 12.(A) 13.(D) 14.(C) 15.(D) 16.(D) 17.(D) 18.(D) 19.(A) 20.(C)
21.(B) 22.(C) 23.(B) 24.(D) 25.(B) 26.(C) 27.(D) 28.(A) 29.(B) 30.(C)
31.(A) 32.(B) 33.(C) 34.(B) 35.(A) 36.(B) 37.(A) 38.(C) 39.(C) 40.(A)
41.(B) 42.(C) 43.(D) 44.(C) 45.(A) 46.(B) 47.(A) 48.(B) 49.(C) 50.(A)

51. When was the draft Constitution of India prepared by the Drafting Committee submitted to the President of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 28th Feb. 1948
(B) 26th Feb. 1948
(C) 21st Feb. 1948
(D) 25th Feb. 1948

52. When was the Second Reading of the Constitution completed in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 18 Nov. 1949
(B) 17 Nov. 1949
(C) 15 Nov. 1949
(D) 16 Nov. 1949

53. How many readings were held on the Constitution in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) First Reading
(B) Third Reading
(C) Second Reading
(D) None of the above

54. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 25th Nov. 1949
(B) 29th Nov. 1949
(C) 26th Nov. 1949
(D) 27th Nov. 1949

55. How many Princely States existed at the time when the Constituent Assembly was making the Constitution—
(A) 600
(B) 800
(C) 900
(D) 950

56. Who said, ‘I feel, however, good a Constitution may be, it is sure to turn out bad because those who are called to work it, taken to be a bad lot. However bad a Constitution may be, it may turn out to be good if those who are called to work it, happens to be a good lot. The working of a Constitution does not depend wholly upon the nature of the Constitution’—
(A) Dr. Ambedkar
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) Dr. Subhash Kashyap
(D) None of the above

57. Who stated, ‘As to the execution that the Draft Constitution has produced a good part of the provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, make no apologies. There is nothing to be ashamed of in Borrowing.’—
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Jawhar Lal Nehru
(C) Gandhiji
(D) Dr. Ambedkar

58. Who said, ‘If the people who are elected are capable and men of character and integrity, they would be able to make the best even of a defective Constitution. If they are lacking in these, the Constitution cannot help the country’—
(A) Sardar Hukam Singh
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel

59. When were the election to the Constituent Assembly held—
(A) July 1946
(B) Aug. 1946
(C) Sep. 1946
(D) Oct. 1946

60. In the Constituent Assembly how many seats were got by the Congress—
(A) 204
(B) 205
(C) 203
(D) 208

61. How many seats were obtained by the Muslim League in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 74
(B) 75
(C) 73
(D) 76

62. How many seats were acquired by the other parties in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 17
(D) 18

63. How many total members were elected in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) 296
(B) 293
(C) 291
(D) 292

64. In the Parliament of India Upper House in known as—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of States
(D) None of the above

65. In the Parliament, Lower House is called as— (A) Legislative Assembly
(B) Legislative Council
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha (House of People)

66. In the Constituent Assembly who was the Head of the Union Constitution Committee—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) Subhash Buse
(D) None of the above

67. In the Constituent Assembly which words were associated with the Parliament—
(A) Parliament of the Legislature
(B) Parliament of the Union
(C) Parliament of the Federation
(D) All the above
68. In the Constituent Assembly, it was said that Parliament of the Federation shall consist of the President and what else—
(A) National Legislature
(B) National Assembly
(C) House of People
(D) Council of State

69. In the Constituent Assembly, which committee recommended that Indian Constitution adopt Parliamentary Form of Executive—
(A) Drafting Committee
(B) Constitutional Committee
(C) Union Constitution Committee
(D) All the above

70. In the Constituent Assembly, how many seats were fixed for House of People—
(A) 500
(B) 400
(C) 300
(D) 250

71. In the Constituent Assembly, what was the number of population fixed for one Representative—
(A) 7,500
(B) 7,50,000
(C) 50,000
(D) 78,500

72. Who elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the First President of India—
(A) Constituent Assembly
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Council of State
(D) Lok Sabha

73. In the Constituent Assembly who proposed the name of Dr. Rajendra Prasad as President of India—
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Sardar Patel
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

74. Which is our National anthem—
(A) Jana Gana Mana
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

75. When did the Constituent Assembly adopt National Anthem—
(A) 25th Jan. 1950
(B) 26th Jan. 1950
(C) 24th Jan. 1950
(D) 29th Jan. 1950
76. In the last session of the Constituent Assembly which song was sung—
(A) Jan Gana Mana
(B) Vande Matram
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

77. Which women presented National Flag in the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Smt. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Smt. Hansa Mehta
(C) Smt. Indira Gandhi
(D) None of the above
78. In the Indian National Flag, what does Ashoka’s wheel represent—
(A) Wheel of the Truth
(B) Wheel of the Moral
(C) Wheel of the Dharm
(D) Wheel of the Law

79. In the National Flag, what does green colour represent—
(A) Animals
(B) Soil
(C) Human Nature
(D) Spiritual Philosophy

80. In the National Flag, what does saffron colour represent—
(A) Spirit of Renunciation
(B) Spirit of colours
(C) Spirit of Human nature
(D) None of the above

81. In the National Flag, whom does the wheel represent—
(A) Prithivi Raj Chauhan
(B) Raja Man Singh
(C) Ashoka
(D) None of the above

82. In the National Flag, what shall be the Ratio of the width to the length—
(A) 2 : 3
(B) 2 : 4
(C) 2 : 5
(D) 2 : 6

83. In the National Flag, how many colours are there—
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) Five

84. Which colours are included in the National Flag—
(A) Deep Saffron
(B) White
(C) Dark Green
(D) All the above

85. In the National Flag, which colour is used in the wheel—
(A) Blue
(B) Navy Blue
(C) Red Green
(D) Green-White

86. In the Constituent Assembly, when was the ad-hoc Committee appointed for the National Flag—
(A) 23rd June 1947
(B) 23rd July 1947
(C) 23rd Jan. 1947
(D) 23rd Feb. 1947

87. What was the name of India’s First Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Union Parliament
(C) Constituent Assembly
(D) National Assembly.

88. During what period, Constituent Assembly of India worked—
(A) 1948-1950
(B) 1949-1951
(C) 1947-1949
(D) 1951-1952

89. Who was the first Speaker of free India’s first Legislature (Constituent Assembly)
(A) G. V. Mavalankar
(B) K. M. Munshi
(C) Frank Anthony
(D) Smt. Sarojini Naidu

90. After Indian Independence who represented Provisional Parliament—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Constituent Assembly

91. When did India become a fully Sovereign Democratic Republic—
(A) 26th Nov. 1949
(B) 26th Nov. 1930
(C) 26th Jan. 1949
(D) 26th Nov. 1951

92. After Indian Independence, what was not Provisional Parliament provided—
(A) Directly Elected Body
(B) Indirectly Elected Body
(C) Sovereign Body
(D) None of the above

93. In the Provisional Parliament of India, how many members were there—
(A) 296
(B) 313
(C) 318
(D) 316

94. In India who amended the Constitution through the first Amendment Bill 1951—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Provisional Parliament
(D) Parliament

95. Who was the first Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) Indira Gandhi
(D) Rajiv Gandhi

96. Who was be Deputy Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Sardar Ballabh Bahi Patel
(D) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) Gulzarilal Nanda
97. Which occupation was represented more in the Provisional Parliament—
(A) Agriculturists
(B) Businessmen
(C) Teachers/Academicians
(D) Lawyers

98. From which area, more members were represented in the Provisional Parliament—
(A) Rural area
(B) Urban area
(C) Municipalities
(D) Panchayats

99. When did the first Lok Sabha function—
(A) 1952-1956
(B) 1953-1957
(C) 1952-1957
(D) None of the above

100. Who was the Prime Minister of India in the first Lok Sabha—
(A) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Abdul Kalam Azad
(D) C. D. Deshmukh

Answers :
51.(C) 52.(D) 53.(B) 54.(C) 55.(A) 56.(A) 57.(D) 58.(C) 59.(A) 60.(B)
61.(C) 62.(A) 63.(D) 64.(B) 65.(D) 66.(A) 67.(C) 68.(A) 69.(C) 70.(A)
71.(B) 72.(A) 73.(C) 74.(C) 75.(C) 76.(C) 77.(B) 78.(D) 79.(B) 80.(A)
81.(C) 82.(A) 83.(B) 84.(D) 85.(B) 86.(A) 87.(C) 88.(C) 89.(A) 90.(D)
91.(C) 92.(A) 93.(B) 94.(C) 95.(A) 96.(B) 97.(D) 98.(A) 99.(C) 100.(A)

101. Who was the Minister of Home Affairs in the first Lok Sabha—
(A) Jagjivan Ram
(B) C. D. Deshmukh
(C) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
(D) Abdul Kalam Azad
102. Who was the first Speaker of the First Lok Sabha—
(A) G.V. Mavalankar
(B) C. D. Deshmukh
(C) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(D) Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant

103. Who was the chairman of the Rajya Sabha at the time of fist Lok Sabha—
(A) N.C. Chatterjee
(B) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(C) A. K. Gopalan
(D) Mahavir Tyagi

104. Who was the father of the Lok Sabha—
(A) Hukam Singh
(B) N. Sanjiva Readdy
(C) G. S. Dhillon
(D) G. V. Mavalankar

105. When did the origin and evolution of the office of Speaker start in India—
(A) In Hindu period
(B) In British Period
(C) In Mughal period
(D) None of the above

106. Till 1920, who presided over the Legislative Council of India—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Governor
(D) Governor General

107. When was the title ‘Speaker’ assumed in India—
(A) 1947
(B) 1948
(C) 1949
(D) 1946

108. Under which act, the Bicameral Central Legislature was established during the British period for the first time—
(A) Govt. of India Act 1938
(B) The Indian Council Act 1861
(C) Govt. of India Act 1919
(D) Govt. of India Act 1935

109. Who was the first President of Central Legislative Assembly before India was Independent—
(A) Sir Frederick Whyte
(B) Sir C.H. Seetalbad
(C) Sardar Patel
(D) Sir Mohammad Yakub

110. Who was the Speaker of the Constituent Assembly—
(A) Sir Abdul Rahim
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) M. A. Ayyangar
(D) Sir Ibrahim Rahim Toola

111. Who was the last President of the Indian Central Legislative Assembly during the British time—
(A) G. V. Mavalankar
(B) Abdul Rahim
(C) Sir R. K. Shanumukham Chetty
(D) None of the above
112. Who was the first Indian to be the President of Central Legislative Assembly—
(A) M. A. Ayyanger
(B) B. R. Bhagat
(C) Dr. Balarm Jakhar
(D) Vithalbhai J. Patel

113. After the death of Shri G. V. Mavrlankar, who became the Speaker of the first Lok Sabha—
(A) M. A. Ayyangar
(B) K.S. Hegde
(C) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(D) None of the above

114. Who was the Speaker of the second Lok Sabha—
(A) K. S. Hegde
(B) M. A. Ayyangar
(C) Salman Khurshid
(D) Rabi Roy

115. Which Indian President was the Speaker of the Fourth Lok Sabha—
(A) S. D. Sharma
(B) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(C) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(D) Dr. S Radhakrishanan

116. Who was the Speaker of the Sixth Lok Sabha—
(A) N. Sanjiva Reddy
(B) K. S. Hegde
(C) A and B
(D) None of the above

117. Which article of the Indian Constitution mentioned the posts of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the House of People—
(A) Article 95
(B) Article 93
(C) Article 91
(D) Article 96

118. Who is the Head to transact the business of the Lok Sabha—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Members of Lok Sabha
(C) Speaker
(D) President

119. In the absence of the Speaker who performs the duties of transacting the business in Lok Sabha—
(A) Deputy Speaker
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Members of Parliament
(D) Parliamentary Affairs Minister

120. Under which Article of the Constitution, the Council of State (Rajya Sabha) has a Chairman and Deputy Chairman—
(A) Article 109
(B) Article 108
(C) Article 89
(D) Article 91

121. What members of the Parliament cannot represent—
(A) Members of Lok Sabha
(B) Members of Rajya Sabha
(C) Members of Legislative Assembly
(D) Members of both Houses of Parliament

122. How can member of Parliament resign from his seat—
(A) By speaking in the House
(B) By an announcement in the Press
(C) By writing under his signature addressed to the Chairman or the Speaker
(D) All the above

123. Who fixes salaries and allowances for the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Members of the Parliament
(D) Parliament by Law
124. In which Schedule of the Constitution salaries and allowances for the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are specified—
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth

125. Under which Article Conduct of Business of Parliament is mentioned—
(A) Article 99
(B) Article 93
(C) Article 76
(D) Article 92

126. Under which Schedule of the Constitution every member of Parliament takes oath or affirmation—
(A) First
(B) Third
(C) Fifth
(D) Sixth

127. Under the British Rule, who was the First Deputy President of Central Legislative Assembly—
(A) Shri Sachchidananda Sinha
(B) Shri Abdul Matia Chaudhary
(C) Sir Muhammad Yakub
(D) Shri R. R. Shamnukhaym Chetty
128. Before Indian Independence, how was the Post of Deputy Speaker in the Central Legislative Assembly called—
(A) Vice President
(B) Vice Chairman
(C) Deputy President
(D) None of the above

129. Who was the last Deputy President of Central Legislative Assembly during the British Period—
(A) Sir Muhammad Yamin Khan
(B) Shri Abdul Matia Chaudhary
(C) Sir Muhammad Yakub
(D) Shri R. R. Shamnukham Chetty

130. Who was the Deputy Speaker of the Constituent Assembly (Legislative)—
(A) Shivaraj Patil
(B) G. Laxman
(C) S.V. Krishnamurthy Rao
(D) M. A. Ayyangar

131. Who was the Deputy Speaker of the First Lok Sabha—
(A) M. A. Ayyangar
(B) Sardar Hukam Singh
(C) M. Thambidurai
(D) None of the above

132. Who was the Prime Minister at the time of Second Lok Sabha—
(A) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(B) Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
(C) Narsimha Rao
(D) I. K. Gujral

133. Who was the First Lok Sabha Speaker unanimously elected—
(A) Hukam Singh
(B) Dr. G.S. Dhillon
(C) M.A. Ayyangar
(D) B.R. Bhagat

134. In the First Lok Sabha Election, what was the expenditure incurred—
(A) Rs. 10.45 crore
(B) Rs. 5.90 crore
(C) Rs. 7.81 crore
(D) Rs. 14.43 crore

135. Who said ‘As President, I have no eyes but constitutional eyes. I cannot see you’—
(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(B) Dr. Radhakrishnan
(C) Abraham Lincoln
(D) Mahatma Gandhi

136. When was the First Lok Sabha dissolved—
(A) 4th April 1957
(B) 3rd April 1957
(C) 6th April 1957
(D) 8th April 1957

137. In the First Lok Sabha, what was the Representation of Women—
(A) 27
(B) 34
(C) 22
(C) 39

138. In the First Lok Sabha, how many seats were—
(A) 500
(B) 499
(C) 544
(D) 521

139. In which two Lok Sabhas Women Representation was equal—
(A) First and Sixth Lok Sabha
(B) First and Eighth Lok Sabha
(C) First and Fifth Lok Sabha
(D) First and Ninth Lok Sabha
140. Which Prime Minister of India imposed President Rule for more number of times—
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(C) N. D. Deva Gowda
(D) Indira Gandhi

141. During the time of Jawahar Lal Nehru, how many Times Presidents Rule was reproduced—
(A) Seven
(B) Two
(C) Zero
(D) Four

142. During Lal Bahadur Shastri time, how many times President Rule was imposed—
(A) Four
(B) Ten
(C) Two
(D) Fifteen

143. During the time of Indira Gandhi, what was the number of President’s Rule imposed—
(A) 16
(B) 48
(C) 4
(D) 6

144. During the time of Morarji Desai and Charan Singh, what was the number of times President Rule imposed—
(A) 16
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 10

145. In Rajeev Gandhi time, how many times President Rule was imposed—
(A) 15
(B) 20
(C) 5
(D) 6

146. At the time of V. P. Singh, how many times President’s Rule was imposed—
(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) 8

147. During the period of Chandra Shekhar, how many times President’s Rule was imposed—
(A) 9
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 11

148. During the time of P. V. Narsihmha Rao, what was the number of President’s Rule—
(A) 90
(B) 100
(C) 7
(D) 11

149. At the time of H. D. Deva Gowda, what was the number of President’s Rule—
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 13
(D) 16

150. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, Constitution of Parliament has been defined—
(A) 80
(B) 79
(C) 82
(D) 81

Answers :
101.(C) 102.(A) 103.(B) 104.(D) 105.(B) 106.(D) 107.(A) 108.(C) 109.(A) 110.(B)
111.(A) 112.(D) 113.(A) 114.(B) 115.(C) 116.(C) 117.(B) 118.(C) 119.(A) 120.(C)
121.(D) 122.(C) 123.(D) 124.(B) 125.(A) 126.(B) 127.(A) 128.(C) 129.(A) 130.(D)
131.(A) 132.(B) 133.(C) 134.(A) 135.(C) 136.(A) 137.(C) 138.(B) 139.(C) 140.(D)
141.(A) 142.(C) 143.(B) 144.(D) 145.(D) 146.(A) 147.(B) 148.(D) 149.(A) 150.(B)

151. Who nominates 12 members in the Council of State—
(A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) President of India
(D) Prime Minister of India
152. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by which members—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Legislative Assembly
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

153. Representative of Union territories in the Council of State shall be choosen in such a manner as decided by—
(A) As prescribed by law in the Assembly
(B) As prescribed by law by State
(C) As prescribed by law by the Union
(D) As prescribed by law in the Parliament

154. How many members represented Union territories in Lok Sabha—
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) 22
(D) 23

155. For a Election to Lok Sabha, each State shall be divided into—
(A) Constituencies
(B) Territorial Constituencies
(C) Union Constituencies
(D) State Constituencies

156. How many members are fixed for Lok Sabha—
(A) 501
(B) 551
(C) 530
(D) 506

157. In which Article of the Constitution of India, duration of House of Parliament has been mentioned—
(A) 83
(B) 84
(C) 85
(D) 88

158. Which House shall not be a subject for dissolution—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) House of People
(C) Council of State
(D) State Legislature

159. After how many years, one-third of the members of the Rajya Sabha retire—
(A) 6 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 2 years

160. Under which Constitutional subject in operation, life of Lok Sabha can be extended by one year—
(A) Proclamation of Emergency
(B) Proclamation of President Rule in the State
(C) Proclamation of Amendment to the Constitution
(D) None of the above
161. What is the period of Lok Sabha—
(A) Four years
(B) Six years
(C) Five years
(D) Three years

162. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, qualification for membership of Parliament has been mentioned—
(A) 88
(B) 84
(C) 89
(D) 91

163. What power the President may exercise from time to time in respect of Parliament—
(A) Prorogue either of the House of Parliament
(B) Dissolve House of the People
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
164. What activities does the President perform in respect of both the Houses of the Parliament—
(A) Time to time to summon each of Parliament
(B) Prorogue either of the House of the Parliament
(C) Dissolve the Lok Sabha
(D) All the above
165. Under whose advice, the President shall have the power of summoning, prorogation and dissolution—
(A) Home Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Council of Ministers
(D) Parliamentary Affairs Ministers

166. Within which period the President has to summon session of the Parliament—
(A) Six Months
(B) Five Months
(C) Four Months
(D) Three Months

167. Under which Supreme Court Judgment, action of the President to summon, prorogue and dissolve either of the Houses of the Parliament shall be unconstitutional if acted without advice of Council of Ministers—
(A) Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(B) Rao vs. Indira Gandhi A.I.R. 1971 S.C. 1002
(C) Anandan vs. Chief Secretary, A.I.R. 1966 S.C 657
(D) None of the above

168. In the event of dissolution of Lok Sabha, who need not resign or get dismissed immediately—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Union Council of Ministers
(D) None of the above
169. Under which Constitutional Article, President has the right to address and send message to the Parliament—
(A) 84
(B) 83
(C) 85
(D) 86

170. Under which Constitutional Article, President has the right for Special Address to the Parliament—
(A) 87
(B) 88
(C) 89
(D) 90

171. Which law officer shall have the right to speak in both the Houses of Parliament—
(A) Solicitor General
(B) Advocate General
(C) Attorney General
(D) Legal Advisor

172. Which Article of the Constitution of India mentioned the posts of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha—
(A) 90
(B) 89
(C) 93
(D) 94

173. Whom the Rajya Sabha has the power for removal—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Council of President
(D) Deputy Chairman

174. During the absence of the Chairman, who runs the Rajya Sabha ?
(A) Deputy Chairman
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Parliamentary Affairs Minister

175. Under which Article, House of the People can have the Speaker and Deputy Speaker—
(A) 95
(B) 93
(C) 98
(D) 96

176. What is the period laid down by the Constitution before the proposal for removal of Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha can be taken up by a resolution in the Lok Sabha—
(A) 15 Days
(B) 18 Days
(C) 16 Days
(D) 14 Days

177. In Lok Sabha, who can not preside in the House while a Resolution for Removal from his office is under consideration—
(A) Speaker
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

178. Under which Article Salaries and allowances of the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are mentioned—
(A) 97
(B) 96
(C) 95
(D) 94

179. Which Article mentions the conduct of business of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

180. Who appoints each member of either of the Houses of the Parliament after notification is received from the Election Commission—
(A) President
(B) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

181. Who shall not give vote in the first instance in either of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) Speaker
(B) Chairman
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
182. When Speaker and Chairman shall give their votes on the Parliament.
(A) When Prime Minister asks them to give vote on the Bill
(B) When the House passes such a resolution
(C) In the case of a tie between Yes and No
(D) All the above
183. What is the Quorum laid down to constitute a meeting of either of the Houses of Parliament—
(A) one-tenth of the total number of members of that House
(B) one-fourth of the total number of members of that House
(C) one-fifth of the total number of members of that House
(D) one-half of the total number of members of that House
184. Which Article mentions disqualification of members in the Parliament—
(A) Article 101 to Article 104
(B) Article 101 to Articles 105
(C) Article 102 to Article 106
(D) Article 106 to Article 110

185. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter—
(A) Railway Budget
(B) Defence Budget
(C) Foreign affairs
(D) Financial Bill

186. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold—
(A) Budget session
(B) Monsoon session
(C) Winter session
(D) All the above

187. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament—
(A) First session (Budget)
(B) Second session (Monsoon)
(C) Third session (Winter)
(D) None of the above

188. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented—
(A) Monsoon session
(B) First session
(C) Winter session
(D) None of the above

189. What is the meaning of the adjournment motion under Parliamentary procedure—
(A) Member draws attention regarding important subject-matter
(B) Member wants the House to discuss his subject-matter
(C) Member wants to raise complicated issue
(D) Member wants to draw the attention of the House to way recent matter of urgent public importance having serious consequences.
190. Who has the power to accept adjournment in the House—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Speaker in the Lok Sabha and Chairman in the Rajya Sabha
(D) All the above

191. Which authority in the Parliament has the right to adjourn the House—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(B) President
(C) Parliamentary Affairs Minister
(D) Prime Minister
192. Who has the power to present adjournment motion in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha—
(A) Minister
(B) Deputy Speaker
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Member of the said House

193. In the Parliament, every Bill has to pass through which stages of Reading before it becomes act—
(A) First Reading
(B) Second Reading
(C) Third Reading
(D) All the above

194. When a Bill is passed by the Parliament and the President, what is the status of the name—
(A) Law
(B) Bill approved
(C) Bill exercised for administration
(D) Government procedure

195. Which two houses, can have a joint sitting—
(A) Legislative Assembly and Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(C) Council of State and Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

196. When does the President assent the Bill—
(A) Lok Sabha passes the Bill
(B) Rajya Sabha passes the Bill
(C) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both passed the Bill
(D) None of the above
197. In India, when does the financial year commence—
(A) First April
(B) Second April
(C) First March
(f) Fifteenth March

198. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Ministry wise
(D) All the above

199. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha—
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

200. How are the parts of the Budget known as—
(A) General Budget
(B) Railway Budget
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answers :
151.(C) 152.(B) 153.(D) 154.(A) 155.(B) 156.(C) 157.(A) 158.(C) 159.(D) 160.(A)
161.(C) 162.(B) 163.(C) 164.(D) 165.(C) 166.(A) 167.(B) 168.(C) 169.(D) 170.(A)
171.(C) 172.(B) 173.(D) 174.( ) 175.(B) 176.(D) 177.(C) 178.(A) 179.(C) 180.(A)
181.(C) 182.(C) 183.(A) 184.(A) 185.(D) 186.(D) 187.(A) 188.(B) 189.(D) 190.(C)
191.(A) 192.(D) 193.(D) 194.(A) 195.(B) 196.(C) 197.(A) 198.(C) 199.(B) 200.(C)

201. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill—
(A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member
(B) Bill approved by the Government
(C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
(D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament

202. In the Second Reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill—
(A) A general discussion on the Bill
(B) Clause by clause consideration of the Bill
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

203. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Member of Lok Sabha
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha

204. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the parliament—
(A) President
(B) Member of the House
(C) Minister
(D) None of the above

205. Which Bill President can neither return nor withhold his assent—
(A) Defence Bill
(B) Money Bill
(C) Law Bill
(D) Financial Account Committee Bill
206. How may Standing Committees are there in Lok Sabha—
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 15
(D) 18

207. Standing Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Business Advisory Committee & Committee of Privileges
(B) Committee on Absence of Members from the sitting of the House & Committee on Estimates
(C) Committee on Government assurances and Committee on papers laid on the Table
(D) All the above
208. Financial Committees in Lok Sabha are—
(A) Committee on Estimates
(B) Public Accounts Committee
(C) Public Undertaking Committee
(D) All the above

209. Ad hoc Committees in Parliament are—
(A) Committee on Draft Five Year Plan, etc.
(B) Committee in the conduct of certain members during the President Address (C) Select or Joint Committee on Bills
(D) All the above

210. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Parliament—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

211. By which procedure the Indian President and American President are elected as laid down by their country’s constitution—
(A) Elected through Member of Legislature
(B) Elected by the People
(C) Elected by State Legislatures
(D) Elected by an Electoral College
212. In what way our Indian Parliament is not Sovereign or Supreme with respect to the Constitution—
(A) In the Preamble, Constitution of India defines people of India as Sovereign
(B) Written Constitution of India
(C) Separation of Power and Checks and Blanees between the three constitutional organ
(D) All the above

213. Who has said that basic features of the Indian Constitution do not amount to a change—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Supreme Court of India
(D) Government

214. What is the nature of India’s political system—
(A) Presidential System
(B) Parliamentary System
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

215. Which Constitutional Article was very much affected in the Supreme Court Judgement of Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 368
(C) Article 351
(D) Article 342

216. Which constitutional article emopowers amendment in the Constitution of India—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 357
(D) Article 359

217. Which constitutional organ has the power to amend Constitution of India—
(A) Judiciary
(B) Executive
(C) Legislative
(D) Parliament

218. On which subject, Parliament has the power to amend the Constitution and the same also need ratification by the State Legislature—
(A) Articles 54, 55, 73, 162 and 241 or Chapter IV of Part V, Chapter V of Part VI or Chapter I of Part XI
(B) Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedules of the representation of State on Parliament
(C) The Provisions of Article 368
(D) All the above
219. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for the first time—
(A) 25th Amendment Act
(B) 26th Amendment Act
(C) 24th Amendment Act
(D) 27th Amendment Act

220. Which Supreme Court Judgement pronounced that Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged—
(A) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab A.I.R. 1967 S.C. 1643
(B) Kesavanand Bharti vs. State of Kerala A.I.R. 1973 S.C. 1961
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Rajnarain A.I.R. 1975 S.C. 2299
(D) None of the above
221. Who curbed the Judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution—
(A) State Legislature
(B) Parliament
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislative Council

222. Who restored the Judicial Review power of Judiciary under Indian Constitution—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) High Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) District Court
223. In which House, Janta Government failed to secure two-third majority for new clause under Article 368 for introducing referendum for effecting changes in certain logic features of the Constitution—
(A) Legislative Council
(B) State Legislature
(C) State Assembly
(D) Rajya Sabha

224. Who said in his judgement that no part of our Constitution is unamendable—
(A) Allahabad High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Supreme Court of India

225. What was the important landmark judgement regarding amendment of the Constitution (Article 368)
(A) Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Golak Nath vs State of Punjab
(C) Kesavananda vs State of Kerala, Minerva Mill vs. Union of India
(D) All the above
226. Which Supreme Court judgement described the basic structure of the Constitution of India for the first time—
(A) Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India
(B) Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
(C) Indira Gandhi vs. Union of India
(D) Golak Nath vs. State of Punjab
227. How many judges of the Supreme Court were in the Bench to describe the basic structure of the Constitution for the first time in the landmark Judgement Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala—
(A) Article 13
(B) Article 12
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 15

228. Under which Chief Justice of India, the Constitution Bench described the basic structure of the Constitution for the first time—
(A) Mr. Justice J. M. Shelat
(B) Mr. Justice J. S. Verma
(C) Mr. Justice C. J. Sikri
(D) Mr. Justice K. V. Chandrachud

229. In which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that Parliament cannot enlarge its own powers by making itself new Constitution—
(A) Sasanka vs. Union of India
(B) Kesavananda vs. State of Kerala
(C) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
(D) Sankari Prasad vs. Union of India
230. What is the nature of the Indian Constitution—
(A) Rigid Constitution
(B) Flexible Constitution
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

231. Which Articles in the Indian Constitution represent emergency provisions—
(A) Article 348-354
(B) Article 352-360
(C) Article 359-361
(D) Article 368-380

232. Under which article of the Indian Constitution proclamation of emergency has been defined—
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 353
(C) Article 354
(D) Article 358

233. Which article in the Constitution of India defines effect of proclamation of Emergency—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 353
(C) Article 354
(D) Article 257

234. Which Constitutional Article defines that only the union has the power to protect states against external aggression and internal disturbance—
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 360
(C) Article 355
(D) Article 361

235. Which Constitutional article defines the provisions in case of failure of constitutional machinary in States—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 358
(C) Article 359
(D) Article 369

236. Which Constitutional article defines exercise of Legislative power after proclamation is issued under article 356—
(A) Article 358
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 358

237. Which article defines suspession of the provisions of Article 18 during emergency—
(A) Article 344
(B) Article 345
(C) Article 343
(D) Article 358

238. Which constitutional article defines the provision in respect of financial emergency—
(A) Article 359
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 350

239. Which constitutional article defines the provision in respect of financial emergency—
(A) Article 348
(B) Article 351
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 362

240. Which constitutional article defines protection of President and Governors—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 301

241. Which constitutional article defines protection against publication of proceedings of Parliament and Legislature—
(A) Article 361D
(B) Article 361A
(C) Article 364
(D) Article 365

242. Which constitutional article defines the Bar to interference by Courts in disputes arising out of certain treaties, agreements, etc.—
(A) Article 363
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 371
(D) Article 372

243. Which constitutional article abolished the Privy Purses—
(A) Article 374
(B) Article 392
(C) Article 363A
(D) Article 364

244. Which constitutional article defines the effect of failure to comply with or to give effect to direction given by the Union—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 367
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 365

245. Which constitutional article defines the various definitions of constitutional subject—
(A) Article 366
(B) Article 369
(C) Article 375
(D) Article 378

246. Which Fundamental Rights Article is not in operation during the emergency—
(A) Article 22
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 23
(D) Article 24

247. Which constitutional organ has wider powers when emergency is in operation—
(A) Executive
(B) Legislative
(C) Judiciary
(D) A & B

248. Which organ does not have the right to question and justify as null and void the law which violates Fundamental Rights article?
(A) Executive
(B) Judiciary
(C) Legislative
(D) None of the above

249. Who has the power to declare that citizen has no right to move any court for the enforcement of the rights conferred by Part 3 of Fundamental Rights during the course of emergency—
(A) Executive
(B) President
(C) Governor
(D) Prime Minister

250. Which Fundamental Rights article is enforceable during the period of emergency—
(A) 20
(B) 21
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

Answers :
201.(D) 202.(C) 203.(B) 204.(A) 205.(B) 206.(D) 207.(D) 208.(D) 209.(D) 210.(C)
211.(D) 212.(D) 213.(C) 214.(B) 215.(B) 216.(A) 217.(D) 218.(D) 219.(C) 220.(A)
221.(B) 222.(A) 223.(D) 224.(D) 225.(D) 226.(B) 227.(A) 228.(C) 229.(C) 230.(C)
231.(B) 232.(A) 233.(B) 234.(C) 235.(A) 236.(B) 237.(D) 238.(A) 239.(C) 240.(D)
241.(B) 242.(A) 243.(C) 244.(D) 245.(A) 246.(B) 247.(D) 248.(B) 249.(B) 250.(C)

251. Through which constitutional amendment in article 359, it has been laid down that Fundamental Rights under articles 20 and 21 are enforceable during the operation of emergency—
(A) 44th Amendment Act
(B) 46th Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act
(D) 48th Amendment Act

252. On whose satisfaction period of emergency shall be extended for operation in case security of India or any part of the Indian territory is threatened—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) President of India
(D) Vice-President of India

253. Article 20 of the Fundamental Rights represents which subject—
(A) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
(B) Protection in respect of Conviction of Offence
(C) Protection of life and personal liberty
(D) None of the above

254. Article 21 of the Fundamental Rights deals with which subject—
(A) Protection of certain rights regarding freedom of speech,
(B) Protection in respect of conviction of offence
(C) Protection against arrest and detention in certain cases
(D) Protection of life and personal liberty

255. Who declares the financial emergency—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) None of the above

256. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation without approval by the Parliament—
(A) Three Months
(B) Four Months
(C) Two Months
(D) One Month

257. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve Financial emergency declared by the President—
(A) Six Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Four Months

258. In Financial Emergency, salaries and allowances of which groups get reduction—
(A) Central Government Employees
(B) Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

259. Raj Pramukh represents whom under the Indian Constitution—
(A) President
(B) Governor
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

260. Under the Indian Constitution, what is the concept behind the protection of President and Governors—
(A) President & Governors are above the law
(B) President & Governors make any law for the Constitution
(C) President and Governors are answerable to Prime Minister
(D) President and Governors shall not be answerable to any court to the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office

261. By which Constitutional amendment, the appellation Rajpramukh was omitted—
(A) 7th Amendment Act 1956
(B) 4th Amendment Act 1955
(C) 6th Amendment Act 1956
(D) 10th Amendment Act 1961

262. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity for President and Governors for official act—
(A) Article 362
(B) Article 363
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 361

263. Which constitutional article provides personal immunity to the head of the states for his official act from legal action, including proceedings for contempt of Court—
(A) Article 361
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 369

264. Under which constitutional articles, newspapers do not have the right to publish report of the proceedings of a secret session of either of the Houses of Parliament or Legislative Assembly & Legislative Council—
(A) 361
(B) 361A
(C) 361B
(C) 361C

265. Spell out the condition under Article 361A by which any person or newspaper cannot be sued for legal proceeding if any report of proceedings of Parliament and State Legislature is published—
(A) The report must be a report of the ‘procedings’ of a House of the Union or a State Legislature. Hence, it must be relevant to a motion or other business before the House, and must not have been expunged
(B) It must be a ‘report’ as distinguished from one article or `Comment’.
(C) Such report must be substantially true. Hence, an extract or a garbed or perverted report would not be protected. The reporting must not be actuated by malice
(D) All of the above

266. Any Court including Supreme Court does not have constitutional right under Article 143 to exercise jurisdiction over any dispute arising out of any provision of which agreements that were in operation before commencement of the Constitution—
(A) Treaty, Agrrement
(B) Covenant, Engagement
(C) Sanad
(D) All of the above

267. What is the meaning of Indian State in the Constitution—
(A) Any territory recognised by President of India
(B) Any territory before commencement of Indian Constitution by the British ruler
(C) Any territory which government of the Dominion of India recognised
(D) B & C

268. Before which Constitutional Amendment, Prince, Chief or other person were recognised by the President of India as the Ruler of the Indian State—
(A) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 24th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

269. Under which Constitutional Amendment Privy Purses were abolished—
(A) 36th Amendment Act 1975
(B) 26th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 16th Amendment Act 1963
(D) 17th Amendment Act 1964

270. Under which Constitutional Article, Union Government has the power to give direction to the State Govt. regarding any of the provisions of the Constitution—
(A) Article 368
(B) Article 362
(C) Article 365
(D) Article 367

271. If any State Government fails to comply with or to give effect to any direction given by the Union Government, who can come to conclusion that a situation has arisen in which the State cannot carry out governance in accordance with the provision in the Constituion—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Home Minister
(D) Supreme Court

272. Under Article 365 what are the duties of the Union Government with respect to State Governments—
(A) Ensure that every State Minister should act in accordance with the advice of Chief Minister
(B) Ensure that Governor acts under advice of the Chief Minister
(C) Ensure that Governance in the State is in accordance with the Constitution
(D) All of the above

273. What is the meaning of Foreign State as given in our Indian Constitution—
(A) Federal State
(B) Commonwealth State
(C) Nation
(D) Any State other than India

274. Which Constitutional article defines the work of Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Article 323A
(B) Article 233B
(C) Article 223B
(D) None of the above

275. Under which part of the Constitution, Tribunals have been defined—
(A) Part Four
(B) Part Seven
(C) Part Fifteen
(D) Part Ten

276. What are the subjects for adjudication or trial by Administrative Tribunal—
(A) Private sector employee recruitment disputes
(B) Decide on recruitment in Public sector
(C) Dispute and complaints with respect to recruitment and condition of service of persons appointed in the public services in connection with the officers of the Union or of any State or of any local or other Authority within the territory of India
(D) None of the above

277. Administrative Tribunal is meant for whom—
(A) Union
(B) Each State
(C) Two or more States
(D) All the above

278. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the subject Tribunal in the Indian Constitution—
(A) Forty-second Amendement Act
(B) Sixty-ninth Amendment Act
(C) Seventeenth Amendment Act
(D) Seventy-one Amendment Act

279. On which Administrative Tribunal have no right to adjudicate disputes—
(A) Members of the Defence Forces
(B) Officers and Servants of the Supreme Court or of any High Court
(C) Members of the Secretariat Staff of Parliament or of any legislature of any State or Union Territory
(D) All of the above

280. Administrative Tribunals entertain those employees who are under employment with whom?
(A) Union or State Government
(B) A Local or other authority within the territory of India
(C) A Corporation owned or controlled by the Government
(D) All of the above

281. Jurisdiction of the Administrative Tribunal is not supplementary but is a complete substitute for whom—
(A) High Court
(B) Civil Courts
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

282. Under which constitutional article, jurisdiction of the Supreme Court has been retained over the Administrative Tribunals—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 136
(C) Article 132
(D) Article 134

283. Jurisdiction of the High Courts under Article 226 over service matters has been taken over by which judicial institution—
(A) District Court
(B) Administrative Court
(C) Chief Metropolitan Magistrate
(D) High Court

284. Which Constitutional Institution conducts elections of Parliament and State Legislatures and to the offices of President and Vice-President—
(A) State Election Commission
(B) Provisional Election Commission
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

285. After 44th Constitutional Amendment provisions relating with election in Part XV of the Constitution of India have been retained in how many Articles—
(A) 324-329A
(B) 324-329
(C) 324-327
(D) 224-228

286. Which Constitutional Article relating with the subject of election was omitted through 44th Amendment Act 1975—
(A) 329A
(B) 329B
(C) 329C
(D) 329

287. Through which Constitutional Amendment, Article 329A relating with the subject of Election was inserted—
(A) 25th Amendment Act 1971
(B) 27th Amendment Act 1971
(C) 28th Amendment Act 1972
(D) 39th Amendment Act 1975

288. Through which Constituional Article, the subject of Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters have been elaborated—
(A) Article 327
(B) Article 229
(C) Article 329
(D) None of the above

289. Which Constitutional Article elaborated power of Parliament to make provision with respect to election to legislatures—
(A) Article 329
(B) Article 327
(C) Article 328
(D) Article 330

290. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner—
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) None of the above

291. Who acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission after appointment as Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Home Minister
(C) Chief Appointment Officer
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

292. Under whose advice, President of India appoints Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice of High Court
(C) Governor
(D) Chief Election Commissioner

293. Who decides allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Political Party leader
(B) Political Party Governing Committees
(C) Election Committee of Political Party
(D) Election Commission

294. Conduct of Election Rules, 1961 was made by the Central Govt. in consultation with which commission—
(A) Parliamentary Members Inquiry Commission
(B) Regional Election Commissioners
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

295. Who decides disputes relating with the allotment of symbols to Political Parties—
(A) Representation Act 1952
(B) Representation Act 1953
(C) Representation of the People Act 1951
(D) Election Commission

296. Who made a law for conduction of services and tenure of the office of Election Commissioners and Regional Election Commissioner—
(A) Chief Election Commissioner
(B) President
(C) Parliament
(D) State Legislature

297. Who decides de-recognition of the Political Party solely on the basis of its performance at the election, e.g., bycotting of the election—
(A) Supreme Court of India
(B) Election Commission
(C) High Court
(D) District Court

298. Can de-recognition of the Political Party by the Election Commission on the basis of its performance at the last Election be subjected to scrutiny—
(A) Judicial Review
(B) Judicial Order
(C) Judicial Scrutiny
(D) None of the above

299. On whose recommendation, Election Commissioner or Regional Election Commissioner shall be removed from the office—
(A) Chief Judicial Magistrate
(B) President
(C) Election Commission
(D) None of the above

300. Who has ample powers under Article 324(1) to make appropriate orders as to the conduct of Elections, e.g., cancellation of poll and ordering to poll according to exigencies in particular areas, introduction of electronic voting machines, postponing of election, etc.—
(A) Regional Election Commissioner
(B) Election Committee of Government
(C) Electoral Officer
(D) Election Commission

Answers :
251.(A) 252.(C) 253.(B) 254.(D) 255.(A) 256.(C) 257.(B) 258.(C) 259.(C) 260.(D)
261.(A) 262.(D) 263.(A) 264.(B) 265.(D) 266.(D) 267.(D) 268.(A) 269.(B) 270.(C)
271.(A) 272.(C) 273.(D) 274.(A) 275.(C) 276.(C) 277.(D) 278.(A) 279.(D) 280.(D)
281.(C) 282.(B) 283.(B) 284.(C) 285.(B) 286.(A) 287.(D) 288.(C) 289.(B) 290.(A)
291.(D) 292.(D) 293.(D) 294.(C) 295.(D) 296.(C) 297.(B) 298.(A) 299.(C) 300.(D)

301. Under Article 324, Election Commission has vast functions which are as given in what area—
(A) Administrative power
(B) Marginally Judicative power
(C) Legislative power
(D) All of the above

302. After which Constitutional Amendment, even though decision of the Election Commission is issued from New Delhi, the order of the commission can be challenged by the aggrieved party in another state in the High Court of that State under Article 226—
(A) 15th Amendment Act
(B) 10th Amendment Act
(C) 11th Amendment Act
(D) 12th Amendment Act

303. Through which procedure, a writ can be filed in the Supreme Court against decision of the Election Commission on recognising or de-recognising a political party for the purpose of an electoral symbol, or which group within a particular party, constitutes that party for been allotted of Election symbol to that party—
(A) Under Article 32
(B) Under Article 229
(C) Special leave petition
(D) Public Interest Litigation

304. Under which Constitutional Article, Special leave to appeal lies with the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 136
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 139

305. Under which Constitutional Article review of judgement or orders lies with the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 139
(B) Article 137
(C) Article 140
(D) Article 141

306. Under which Constitutional Article enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court is mentioned—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 148
(C) Article 138
(D) Article 143

307. Which Constitutional Article mentions conformation the Supreme Court of powers to issue certain writs—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 168
(C) Article 169
(D) Article 139

308. Which Constitutional Article mentions transfer of certain cases for Supreme Court—
(A) Article 139A
(B) Article 139B
(C) Article 139C
(D) Article 138
309. Which Constitutional Article defines law declared by Supreme Court to be binding on all courts—
(A) Article 142
(B) Article 141
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144

310. Under which Constitutional Article, President has the power to consult Supreme Court—
(A) Article 145
(B) Article 146
(C) Article 143
(D) Article 144

311. Under which Constitutional Article, Civil and Judicial authorities are to act in aid of the Supreme Court—
(A) Article 245
(B) Article 248
(C) Article 146
(D) Article 144

312. Under which Constitutional Article repeal of special provision as to disposal of questions relating to constitutional validity of law is mentioned—
(A) Article 144A
(B) Article 345
(C) Article 248
(D) Article 249

313. Which Constitutional Article defines the subject ‘Officers and servants and expenses of the Supreme Court.’
(A) Article 296
(B) Article 147
(C) Article 247
(D) Article 245

314. Which Constitutional Article defines ‘Interpretation’ of Constitutional right of Supreme Court—
(A) Article 163
(B) Article 162
(C) Article 147
(D) Article 161

315. Which Constitutional Article defines functions of Comptroller and Auditor General of India.—
(A) Article 148-150
(B) Article 149-150
(C) Article 148-155
(D) Article 148-151

316. Which Constitutional Article defines, Comptroller and Auditor General of India—
(A) Article 148
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 150
(D) Article 151

317. Through which Constitutional Article duties and powers of ‘Comptroller and Auditor General’ is detailed—
(A) Article 153
(B) Article 149
(C) Article 199
(D) Article 168

318. Which Constitutional Article defines ‘Form of Accounts of the Union and the State.’—
(A) Article 151
(B) Article 152
(C) Article 150
(D) Article 153

319. Under which Constitutional Article, the Election Commission is a Tribunal—
(A) Article 136
(B) Article 136(3)
(C) Article 136
(2)(D) Article 136(1)

320. Up to which year Chief Election Commissioner functioned as one-man Commission—
(A) 1988
(B) 1989
(C) 1987
(D) 1986

321. In which months and year, the President notified that besides the Chief Election Commisioner the Commission should have two other members called as Election Commissioner—
(A) Nov. 1989
(B) Feb. 1989
(C) Oct. 1989
(D) Dec. 1989

322. Through which Supreme Court Judgement, it has been pronounced that Chief Election Commissioner should have two other members called Election Commissioner with Coordinate power—
(A) Durga Shankar vs. Raghuraj A.I.R. 1954 S.C. 520
(B) Mohinder vs. Election Commission A.I.R. 1978 S.C. 851
(C) Inderjeet vs. Election Commission A.I.R. 1984 S.C 1911
(D) Dhanoa vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1991 S. C. 1745

323. Chief Election Commissioner cannot be removed except by which process—
(A) Resignation
(B) Presidential Order
(C) Impeachment
(D) Judicial Decision

324. Under which Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commission was made a body of multimember Election Commission—
(A) T. N. Seshan
(B) H. K. Sen
(C) S. P. Sen Verma
(D) M. S. Gill

325. Which Chief Election Commissioner appealed the Supreme Court that under Article 324, Election Commission as a multi member Election Commission is not valid—
(A) K. B. Sundram
(B) T. Swaminathan
(C) H. S. Shakdhar
(D) T. N. Seshan

326. During T. N. Seshan period as Chief Election Commissioner, who was the other Commissioner in the Election Commission—
(A) M. S. Gill
(B) G. V. Krishnamurthy
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

327. For which Election, one General Electoral Roll for every territorial Constituency shall exist—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislature
(D) All the above

328. On what basis, Election to Lok Sabha and State Legislature shall be conducted—
(A) Adult Suffrage
(B) Indirect Election
(C) Direct Election
(D) None of the above

329. Under which Constitutional Amendment, provision for minimum age as 18 years for the Indian citizen was made to become eligible to vote—
(A) 60th Amendment Act 1988
(B) 61st Amendment Act 1989
(C) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) None of the above

330. Before 61st Amendment Act 1989, what was the age of Indian citizen eligible to vote in the Election—
(A) 23
(B) 24
(C) 21
(D) 22

331. Under Article 326, what was the Constitutional requirment for the Indian citizen not to become eligible as a voter—
(A) Non Resident
(B) Unsoundness of Mind
(C) Crime or Corrupt or Illegal practive
(D) All the above
332. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualification for becoming a voter—
(A) Article 328
(B) Article 339
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 295

333. Which Constitutional Article lays down qualifications for the Indian citizens for election to Parliament—
(A) Article 81
(B) Article 80
(C) Article 83
(D) Article 84

334. Which Constitutional Article defines qualifications for the Indian citizen for election to a State Legislature—
(A) Article 173
(B) Article 175
(C) Article 177
(D) Article 178

335. Under the Indian Constitution, what does ‘Adult Suffrage’ signify—
(A) Children
(B) Persons
(C) Any Indian citizen who is of the age of 18 years and above
(D) None of the above
336. Who makes law with respect to Elections for State Legislature—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) Government
(D) Election Commission

337. Under Constitutional Articles 327 or 328, which subject shall not be called to be questioned in any Court—
(A) Delimitation of Constituencies
(B) The allotment of seats to such Constituency
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
338. How the election to either House of Parliament or to either House of the Legislature of the State shall be called in question in the courts whose manner of presentation may be provided made by law by appropriate Legislature—
(A) PIL (Public Interest Litigation)
(B) SLP (Special Leave Petition)
(C) Action under Article 32
(D) Election Petition

339. Which Constitutional Article lays down the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha—
(A) Article 330
(B) Article 332
(C) Article 333
(D) Article 334

340. Which Constitutional Article deals with ‘Representation of the Anglo-Indian Community’ with House of the People—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 331
(C) Article 332
(D) Article 333

341. Under Article 331, how many members of the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated in Lok Sabha by the President—
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 2
(D) 1

342. In which State a separate district has been reserved for Scheduled Tribes—
(A) Assam
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

343. Which Constitutional Article deals with representation of the Anglo-Indian Community in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) Article 334
(B) Article 335
(C) Article 336
(D) Article 333

344. Under Article 333, how many members from the Anglo-Indian Community can be nominated by the Governor in the Legislative Assembly—
(A) 8
(B) 1
(C) 4
(D) 3

345. Under which Constitutional Amendment of Article 334, reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly has been laid down—
(A) 31st Amendment Act 1959
(B) 23rd Amendment Act
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980 & 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(D) All the above

346. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature—
(A) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(B) 8th Amendment Act 1959
(C) 44th Amendment Act 1978
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980
347. Through which Constitutional Amendment, 30 years were fixed for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Assembly—
(A) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(B) 50th Amendment Act 1984
(C) 23rd Amendment Act 1969
(D) 51st Amendment Act 1984
348. Which Constitutional Amendment fixes 40 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly.
(A) 55th Amendment Act 1986
(B) 56th Amendment Act 1987
(C) 52nd Amendment Act 1985
(D) 45th Amendment Act 1980

349. Which Constitutional Amendment lays down 50 years for reservation of seats for SC and ST in the House of People and State Legislative Assembly—
(A) 62nd Amendment Act 1989
(B) 44th Amendment Act 1928
(C) 45th Amendment Act 1980
(D) None of the above
350. Which Constitutional Article mentions ‘Claims of SC and ST in Govt. services and post’—
(A) Article 336
(B) Article 335
(B) Article 338
(D) Article 339

Answers :
301.(D) 302.(A) 303.(C) 304.(A) 305.(B) 306.(C) 307.(D) 308.(A) 309.(A) 310.(C)
311.(D) 312.(A) 313.(B) 314.(C) 315.(D) 316.(A) 317.(D) 318.(C) 319.(D) 320.(B)
321.(C) 322.(D) 323.(C) 324.(A) 325.(D) 326.(C) 327.(D) 328.(A) 329.(B) 330.(C)
331.(D) 332.(C) 333.(D) 334.(A) 335.(C) 336.(A) 337.(C) 338.(D) 339.(A) 340.(B)
341.(C) 342.(A) 343.(D) 344.(B) 345.(D) 346.(B) 347.(C) 348.(D) 349.(A) 350.(B)

351. Which Constitutional Article lays down the provision for a National Commission for SC and ST—
(A) Article 337
(B) Article 334
(C) Article 338
(D) Article 339

352. Which community gets special provision for Central Services in Article 336—
(A) Sikh Community
(B) Muslim Community
(C) Hindu Community
(D) Anglo-Indian Community

353. At the time of commencement of the Indian Community how many years were laid down for appointment to the post in the Railways, Customs, Postal & Telegraph services for the Anglo-Indian community—
(A) 2 years
(B) 5 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 6 years

354. What shall be the composition of National Commission for SC and ST—
(A) Chairperson
(B) Vice-Chairperson
(C) Five other members
(D) All the above

355. National Commission for SC and ST shall be made by which constitutional institution—
(A) Parliament
(B) Executive
(C) Judiciary
(D) State Legislature

356. Which Constitutional Article defines the SC—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 341
(D) Article 342

357. Which Constitutional Article defines the ST—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 343
(C) Article 347
(D) Article 342

358. Which Constitutional Article specifies official language of the Union—
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 344
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 346

359. Under Constitutional Article 343, which is the official language of the Union—
(A) Urdu
(B) Hindi
(C) English
(D) b & c

360. Which Constitutional Article empowers the State Legislature to adopt Hindi or any state language as the official language of that state—
(A) Article 345
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 348
(D) Article 349

361. Whose satisfaction is required under Constitutional Article 347 regarding special provision for creating language spoken by a section of the population of a state—
(A) Parliament
(B) Judiciary
(C) President
(D) Prime Minister

362. Which Constitutional Article defines official language for communication between the state and another state and the Union—
(A) Article 349
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 243
(D) Article 305

363. Which Constitutional Article defines the Panchayat Raj—
(A) 243O
(B) 243A
(C) 243
(D) 243I

364. In the Indian Constitution, which type of the Sabha is mentioned under Panchayat Raj—
(A) District Sabha
(B) Gram Sabha
(C) Nagar Panchayat Sabha
(D) Zila Sabha

365. Under Constitutional Article 243, what is the meaning of Panchayat—
(A) Self Gram Panchayat Raj
(B) Government of Village
(C) Self Government
(D) None of the above

366. Under Constitutional Article 243D, in Panchayat who gets reservation—
(A) Scheduled Caste
(B) Scheduled Tribes
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

367. Who make composition of Panchayat under Constitutional Article 243(C)—
(A) State Assembly
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Council of State
(D) Legislature of State

368. Which Constitutional Article defines disqualification for the members of Panchayat—
(A) Article 243F
(B) Article 243G
(C) Article 243I
(D) None of the above

369. Which Constitutional Article defines the duration of the Panchayat—
(A) Article 243N
(B) Article 243O
(C) Article 243E
(D) Article 243B

370. Which Constitutional Article define ‘Municipalities’—
(A) Article 243P
(B) Article 243Q
(C) Article 243T
(D) Article 343U

371. Which Constitutional Article defines ‘constitution of Municipalities’—
(A) Article 243M
(B) Article 243I
(C) Article 243L
(D) Article 243Q

372. Constitutionally, who notifies the phenomenal area of—
(A) Parliament
(B) Governor
(C) Chief Minister
(D) State Government

373. A Municipal Council is situated in which area—
(A) Larger Urban area
(B) Urban area
(C) Smaller Urban area
(D) None of the above

374. Governor issues a notification for which areas on the subject of constitution of Municipal area—
(A) A Transitional Area
(B) A Smaller Urban Area
(C) A Larger Urban Area
(D) All the above

375. For Election of Members to Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly, electoral constituencies comprise wholly or partly of which area—
(A) A Transitional Area
(B) Municipal Area
(C) Legislative Council
(D) None of the above

376. Where wards Committees are found—
(A) Gram Sabha
(B) Gram Panchayat
(C) Municipalities
(D) None of the above

377. Under Constitutional Article 343D, a metropolitan area represent how many number of population—
(A) Ten Lakhs or more
(B) Fifteen Lakhs or more
(C) Less than Ten Lakhs
(D) Less than Five Lakhs

378. Under Constitutional Article 243U, what is the maximum duration of Municipalities—
(A) 4 years
(B) 6 years
(C) 5 years
(D) 3 years

379. Which Constitutional Article defines Election to Municipalities—
(A) Article 243A
(B) Article 243ZA
(C) Article 243ZB
(D) Article 243P

380. Through which Constitutional Amendment, Municipalities continued to be in force in the state which existed before commencement of the Indian constitution—
(A) Seventy-fourth Amendment Act 1992
(B) Forty-fourth Amendment Act 1978
(C) Forty-fifth Amendment Act 1989
(D) Forty-seventh Amendment Act 1984
381. The Constitution of India, was drafted and enacted in which language—
(A) Hindi
(B) English
(C) Tamil
(D) Telugu

382. In Article 394A which language is the authoritative text of the constitution of India—
(A) Punjabi
(B) Manipuri
(C) Hindi
(D) Urdu

383. Which Constitutional Article states ‘This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India’
(A) Article 397
(B) Article 396
(C) Article 395
(D) Article 394

384. Which Constitutional Article states that Hindi is the official language—
(A) Article 343
(B) Article 346
(C) Article 345
(D) Article 347

385. In which language script, Constitution of India was signed by the members of the Constitutent Assembly on 21st Jan. 1950—
(A) English
(B) Hindi
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

386. Which Constitutional Article defines the ‘Provision in case of failure of Constitutional Authority in the state—
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 357
(C) Article 353
(D) Article 351

387. After which report, President promulgates President Rule in the State—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Union Home Minister
(C) Chief Minister
(D) Governor

388. Who has the Authority to approve President Rule in the state—
(A) Parliament
(B) Lok Sabha
(C) State Legislature
(D) Council of State

389. Who has the constitutional power not to approve ‘President Rule’ in the state under Article 356—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Parliament
(C) Union Council of Ministers
(D) State Government
390. In case President Rule in the state is not approved by the Parliament, ‘For how many months the same promulgation shall last’.
(A) Four Months
(B) Two Months
(C) Three Months
(D) Six Months

391. Under Article 356 Governor shall not be bound by whose advice—
(A) Chief Minister Council of Ministers
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) None of the above
392. In which Supreme Court Judgement. it has been pronounced that ‘Article 356 cannot be invoked unless it can be held that government of the state cannot be run in accordance with the provision of the Constitution’
(A) Arun vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1992 Allahabad S.C. 1918
(B) S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1990 Kant 95
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above
393. In which Supreme Court Judgement it has been pronounced that ‘the Union Government cannot dismiss a duly elected State Government on the sole ground that the ruling party in the state suffered an overwhelming defeat in the election of the Lok Sabha—
(A) S. R. Bommai vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1994 S.C. 1916
(B) State of Rajasthan vs. Union of India A.I.R. 1977 S.C. 1361
(C) A & B
(D) None of the above

394. How many Schedules are incorporated in the Constitution of India—
(A) Eleventh Schedule
(B) Tenth Schedule
(C) Ninth Schedule
(D) Twelfth Schedule

395. Which Constitutional Article lays down distribution of work through the Union List, State List, and Concurrent List between the Union and State—
(A) 246
(B) 247
(C) 248
(D) 249

396. In the Union List, how many subjects are incorporated—
(A) 95
(B) 92
(C) 97
(D) 99

397. In the State List, how many subjects are included—
(A) 65
(B) 66
(C) 64
(D) 63

398. In the Concurrent list, how many subjects have been included—
(A) 42
(B) 43
(C) 45
(D) 47

399. Constitutionally, how a law can be made out of the subject in the Concurrent List—
(A) Union
(B) State
(C) Council of State
(D) A & B

400. Constitutionally, who has the power to make a law on the subject mentionable in the Union List—
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Parliament
(C) Rajya Sabha
(D) Legislative Council

Answers :
351.(C) 352.(D) 353.(A) 354.(D) 355.(A) 356.(C) 357.(D) 358.(A) 359.(D) 360.(A)
361.(C) 362.(B) 363.(C) 364.(B) 365.(C) 366.(C) 367.(D) 368.(A) 369.(C) 370.(A)
371.(D) 372.(B) 373.(C) 374.(D) 375.(B) 376.(C) 377.(A) 378.(C) 379.(B) 380.(D)
381.(B) 382.(C) 383.(D) 384.(A) 385.(C) 386.(A) 387.(D) 388.(A) 389.(B) 390.(D)
391.(A) 392.(C) 393.(C) 394.(D) 395.(A) 396.(C) 397.(B) 398.(D) 399.(D)
400.(B)

2010-01-29T03:30:00.001-08:00

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FOR APPSC GROUP-1&2 PREVIOUS 2008 QUESTION PAPERS - CLICK HERE

APPSC TECHNICAL ASST.,ASST. HYDRO GEOLOGISTS,TECHNICAL ASST. EXAM QUESTION PAPERS

2010-01-21T02:50:00.001-08:00

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UNESCO International Days

2010-01-17T20:55:00.001-08:00

UNESCO International Days

Indian National Commission for Cooperation with UNESCO (INCCU) facilitates celebration of UN/UNESCO days/Weeks/Decades in the country. Listed below are the days and weeks officially recognised by the United Nations

 21 February – International Mother Language Day(UNESCO)

 8 March – International Women’s Day

 21 March – International Day for the Elimination of Racial Discrimination

 21 March – World Poetry Day (UNESCO)

 22 March – World Day for Water 2005

 23 March – World Meteorogical Day (WMO)

 24 March – World Tuberculosis Day (WHO)

 7 April – World Health Day (WHO)

 23 April – World Book and Copyright Day (UNESCO)

 3 May – World Press Freedom Day(UNESCO)

 15 May – International Day of Families

 17 May – World Telecommunication Day (IUT)

 21 May – World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue and Development

 22 May – International Day for Biological Diversity

 25 May – Africa Day

 Beginning 25 May – Week of Solidarity with the Peoples of Non-Self-Governing Territories

 31 May – World No-Tobacco Day (WHO)

 5 June – World Environment Day (UNEP)

 17 June – World Day to combat Desertification and Drought

 20 June – World Refugee Day

 23 June – United Nations Public Service Day

 26 June – International Day against Drug Abuse and Illicit Trafficking

 26 June – United Nations International Day in Support of Victims of torture

 1st Saturday July – International Day of Cooperatives

 11 July – World Population Day (UNFPA)

 9 August – International Day of Indigenous People

 12 August – International Youth Day

 23 August – International day for the Remembrance of the slave Trade and its Abolition (UNESCO)

 8 September – International Literacy Day(UNESCO)

 16 September – International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone layer

 21 September – International Day of Peace

 Last Week September – World Maritime Day (IMO)

 1 October – International Day of Older Persons

 2 October – International Non-Violence Day

 1st Monday October – World Habitat Day

 4-10 October – World Space Week

 5 October – World Teacher’s Day (UNESCO)

 9 October – World Post Day (UPU)

 10 October – World Mental Health Day

 2nd Wednesday October – International Day for Natural Disaster Reduction

 16 October – World Food Day (FAO)

 17 October – International Day for the Eradication Poverty

 24 October – United Nations Day

 24 October – World Development Information Day

 24-30 October – Disarmament Week

 6 November – International Day for Preventing the Exploitation of the Environment in war and Armed Conflict

 10 November – World Science Day for Peace and Development (UNESCO)

 16 November – International Day for Tolerance (UNESCO)

 20 November – Africa Industrialization Day

 20 November – Universal Children’s Day (UNICEF)

 21 November – World Television Day

 21 November - - Philosophy Day at UNESCO (UNESCO)

 25 November – International Day for the Elimination of Violence against Women

 29 November – International Day of Solidarity with Palestinian People

 1 December – World Aids Day (WHO)

 2 December – International Day for the Abolition of Slavery

 3 December – International Day of Disabled Persons

 5 December – International Volunteer Day for Economic and Social Development

 7 December – International Civil Aviation Day (ICAO)

 9 December – International Anti-Corruption Day

 10 December – Human Rights Day

 18 December – International Migrant’s Day

International Years proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly

 2002 – United Nations Year for Cultural Heritage

 2002 – International Year of Ecotourism

 2002 – International Year of Mountains

 2003 – International Year of Freshwater

 2004 – International Year to Commemorate the struggle against Slavery and its Abolition

 2004 – International Year of Rice

 2005 – International year of Micro credit

 2005 – International Year for Sport and Physical Education

 2005 – International Year of Physics

 2006 – International Year of Deserts & Desertification

 2008 - International Year of the Potato; and

International Year of Planet Earth; and

International Year of Sanitation; and

International Year of Languages;

 2009 - International Year of Reconciliation;

International Year of Natural Fibres; and

International Year of Astronomy

 2010 - International Year of Biodiversity; and

International Year for the Rapprochement of Cultures

 2011 - International Year of Forests

International Decades proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly

 2005-2015 – International Decade for Action “Water for Life”

 2005-2014- United Nations Decade of Education for Sustainable Development

 2003-2012 – United Nations Literacy Decade

 2001- 2010 – International Decade for a Culture of Peace and Non-Violence for the Children of the World

 2001-2010 – Second International Decade for the Eradication of Colonialism

 2001-2010 – Decade to Roll Back Malaria in Developing Countries, Particularly in Africa

 1997- 2006 – First United Nations Decade for the Eradication of Poverty

 1995- 2004 – United Nations Decade for Human Rights Education

 1994-2004 – International Decade of the World’s Indigenous People

 1993-2003 – Third Decade to Combat Racism and Racial Discrimination

 1993- 2002 – Second Industrial Development Decade for Africa

 1993- 2002 – Asian and Pacific Decade of Disabled Persons

2003-2012 - United Nations Literacy Decade

The United Nations General Assembly at its fifty-sixth session adopted its resolution 56/116 entitled “United Nations Literacy Decade: Education for All” in which it proclaimed United Nations Literacy Decade for the period 2003-2012 towards the goal of Education for All. This proposal was endorsed at the roundtable convened at the World Education Forum, held in Dakar in 2000.

The United Nations Literacy Decade, as an integral component of Education for All, will provide both a platform and an impetus for achieving all six goals of the Dakar Framework for Action which are as follows: -

(1) Expanding and improving comprehensive early childhood care and education, especially for the most vulnerable and disadvantaged children;

(2) Ensuring that by 2015 all children, particularly girls, children in difficult circumstances and those belonging to ethnic minorities, have access to and complete, free and compulsory primary education of good quality;

(3) Ensuring that the learning needs of all young people and adults are met through equitable access to appropriate learning and life-skills programmes;

(4) Achieving a 50 per cent improvement in levels of adult literacy by 2015, especially for women, and equitable access to basic and continuing education for all adults;

(5) Eliminating gender disparities in primary and secondary education by 2005 and achieving gender equality in education by 2015, with a focus on ensuring girls’ full and equal access to and achievement in basic education of good quality;

(6) Improving all aspects of the quality of education and ensuring excellence of all so that recognized and measurable learning outcomes are achieved by all, especially in literacy, numeracy and essential life skills.

International Decade for a Culture of Peace and Non- Violence
for the Children of the World (2001-2010)

The United Nations declared the period between 2001 and 2010 as the International Decade for a Culture of Peace and Non- Violence for the Children of the World. The UNESCO was declared as a lead agency which was tasked with coordinating all the activities relating to the implementation of the action plan of the decade.

In India, the Indian National Commission for Cooperation with UNESCO (INCCU) has been actively promoting this decade. The Commission had organized lecture series in 2001 to create a widespread movement in favour of Culture of Peace in the country. One of the lectures was of His Holiness the Dalai Lama, who is internationally renowned for his commitment to the cause of international peace, security and promoting respect for all human rights.

In the year 2003 an International Conference on Dialogue Among Civilizations was co-organized by Government of India and UNESCO in July 2003 in New Delhi. The Conference resulted in the adoption of the “New Delhi Declaration” which was later on adopted by UNESCO as framework for future action in this regard. Following from this conference, an institute in our country viz. Indian Institute of Advanced Studies, Shimla has been designated as the nodal institute to carry forward the Dialogue Among Civilizations.

UN Decade for Education for Sustainable Development(2005-2014)

In December 2002 the UN General Assembly (UNGA) adopted a resolution to put in place a UN Decade of Education for Sustainable Development, lasting from 2005-2014. UNESCO was designated as the lead agency for the decade and for developing an International Implementation Scheme (IIS). UNESCO has a dual role to play, one as international coordinator and facilitator for the decade, and the second as a substantive implementer of Education for Sustainable Development.

The draft IIS was presented at the 59th Session of the UN General Assembly in October 2004. It sets out a broad framework and provides overall guidance for all partners and stakeholders to contribute to the Decade as per their particular/national context.

The primary goal for the DESD is laid out in the United Nations General Assembly resolutions 59/237 in which the General Assembly “encourages Governments to consider the inclusion ... of measures to implement the Decade in their respective education systems and strategies and, where appropriate, national development plans”. Furthermore, the General Assembly “invites Governments to promote public awareness of and wider participation in the Decade, inter alia, through cooperation with and initiatives engaging civil society and other relevant stakeholders, especially at the beginning of the Decade”. In nutshell, the Decade’s goal is that countries achieve Sustainable Development, i.e., the social, economic and environmental capacity, to maintain an international path of continuing development. Education, beginning with basic literacy and extending throughout life, is the foundation upon which Sustainable Development ultimately rests. UNESCO as lead agency will promote Education as a basis for a more sustainable human society and will encourage the integration of Sustainable Development issues and practices, including local knowledge and culture, into education systems at all levels.

The International Implementation Scheme (IIS) as presented in October, 2005 as a UNESCO document, summarizes the goals and objectives of the Decade, and its relationship to other key education movements. It lists key milestones for the DESD and lays out seven strategies for moving forward with ESD. It is envisaged that IIS would foster collective ownership of the DESD and regions and nations will create plans, strategic approaches, and timetables on the basis of the framework provided by this International Implementation Scheme.

The International Implementation Scheme can be consulted online on the UNESCO DESD website www.unesco.org/education/desd

The Indian National Commission for Cooperation with UNESCO (INCCU) has constituted a National Committee consisting of experts and officials from Government, Civil Society and NGOs on Education, Environment, Culture, Social Sciences, Science, Communication and other related fields in order to systematically implement and oversee activities undertaken within the country in pursuance of the goals of Education for Sustainable Development (ESD). Centre for Environment Education (CEE), Ahmedabad has been designated as the nodal agency for all DESD related activities in the Country.

सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: APTRANSCO Assistant Engineer vacancy Jan2010

2010-01-12T23:05:00.000-08:00

सरकारी नौकरी - Government Jobs India - Sarkari Naukri: APTRANSCO Assistant Engineer vacancy Jan2010

CIVILS COACHING CENTRES AT HYDERABAD

2010-01-12T02:56:00.001-08:00

IAS Training Institutes in Hyderabad

Hyderabad Study Circle
http://www.onestopi as.com/ias- training- institutes/ details/hyderaba d-study-circle- 108.asp

MADHU'S IAS &INFORMATICS
http://www.onestopi as.com/ias- training- institutes/ details/madhu- 39;s-ias- informatics- 107.asp

Brain Tree India
http://www.onestopi as.com/ias- training- institutes/ details/brain- tree-india- 106.asp

REDDY's IAS STUDY CIRLCE
http://www.onestopi as.com/ias- training- institutes/ details/reddy- 39;s-ias- study-cirlce- 105.asp

IAS ACADEMY
http://www.onestopi as.com/ias- training- institutes/ details/ias- academy-104. asp

P N RAJ IAS
http://www.onestopi as.com/ias- training- institutes/ details/p- n-raj-ias- 103.asp

Analog institute
http://www.onestopi as.com/ias- training- institutes/ details/analog- institute- 102.asp

Shekar's IAS Study Circle
http://www.onestopi as.com/ias- training- institutes/ details/shekar- 39;s-ias- study-circle- 101.asp

INSPIRE IAS study circle
http://www.onestopi as.com/ias- training- institutes/ details/inspire- ias-study- circle-100. asp

LAXMI'S IAS
http://www.onestopi as.com/ias- training- institutes/ details/laxmi- 39;s-ias- 99.asp

ANDHRA PRADESH INDUSTRIAL SECTORS

2010-01-12T01:32:00.000-08:00

ANDHRA PRADESH INDUSTRIAL SECTORS
Biotechnology:
Biotech Policy:
The State Government wants the private sector to
play an active role in developing the biotechnology industry in the state.
A The government would act as a facilitator and a catalyst in the development process.
A Realizing the utility of this industry, the government announced its policy for the promotion of biotech units in the State.
Objectives of Biotechnology Policy:
A To take up a detailed inventory of the bio-resources in the State with the help of universities, research bodies, NGOs and private agencies.
A To promote conservation of bio-diversity and sustainable exploitation of bio-resources.
A To develop high quality infrastructure with the required support services for manufacturing units by setting up specialized biotech parks in various parts of the State.
A To facilitate the flow of venture capital funds and bank credit to biotech companies.
Focus:
Based on the industrial analysis of the Biotech sector and inputs from the industry experts, research organizations and academic experts, the Government of Andhra Pradesh has short-listed the following focus areas in Biotechnology.
A Diagnostics
A Therapeutics
A Industrial Biotechnology
AInputs to the industry (hardware suppliers – Instrumentation and Chemicals)
A Agricultural Biotechnology
Andhra Pradesh, specially Hyderabad has several pioneers in the area of Medical/Human and Animal Healthcare. Biotech companies like Shanta Biotechnics, Bharat Biotech, Krebs Biotech, Biological E Ltd., Jupiter Biosciences and Dr. Reddy’s Laboratories among others. This goes on to prove the unique advantage of the State in the area of Pharma-related Biotech.

Government of Andhra Pradesh, in collaboration with the Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) Limited, has set up a Knowledge Park near Hyderabad.

Genome Valley
The State Government has declared an area of 600 square kilometres covering the mandals of Shameerpet, Medchal, Keesra and Uppal mandals in Ranga Reddy district as the Genome Valley in which biotech activities will be encouraged and promoted.

ICICI Knowledge Park:
The State government in collaboration with the Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI) Limited, has set up a Knowledge park near Hyderabad.

The ICICI Knowledge Park is a 200-acres facility, providing organizations with ready-to-occupy research and development laboratories. The park also provides infrastructure to small and medium scale enterprises at affordable prices. The ICICI Knowledge Park will also house a Biotech Knowledge Centre. A Biotechnology Park is being set up adjacent to the existing ICICI Knowledge Park. This 160-acres park will help small and medium enterprises (SMEs) to set up their manufacturing units

i) Agri Biotech Park at ICRISAT: An area of 200 acres has been earmarked for Agri Biotech Park at ICRISAT campus and a MOU has been signed between the Secretary to Government of Andhra Pradesh (I & C Dept.) and Director General, ICRISAT. A firm called AQUAS has already started functioning for the establishment of the Park.

ii) Marine Biotech Park, Visakhapatnam: 218 acres of well developed land has been allocated for Marine Biotech Park (MBP) in Visakhapatnam. Two firms - Biogenus and Celgen - have already been allotted the required land. Many more companies are showing interest to take up ventures in the Marine Biotech Park.

bulk drugs and pharmaceuticals:
Hyderabad, which accounts for around one third of India’s total bulk drug production, is considered as the bulk drug capital of the country. A large number of bulk drug units are located in and around Hyderabad with good infrastructure and trained manpower. The Indian pharmaceutical industry is large and rapidly growing. The pharmaceutical industry in India is expected to grow from $ 5.5 bn to $ 25 bn by 2010 and $ 75 bn by 2020 and create 1.8 million additional employment, US $12-13 bn exports and US $ 4-6 bn investment for the country.

Skilled Human Resources
State offers excellent opportunities for the growth of the pharmaceutical industry in the country due to availability of trained and skilled manpower research and development facilities, including the Indian Institute of Chemical Technology, CCMB, NIN, CDFT and many universities. In addition to this, to develop human resources required for the innovation led growth, Indian Institute of Life Sciences (IILS) will be set up at Manikonda village in Hyderabad in collaboration the industry, the Government and research institute.

Pharma City :

The State Government has taken a decision on the establishment of a ‘Pharma City’ near Visakhapatnam with private sector participation. The industrial area at Parawada in Visakhapatnam has been identified for the development of world class infrastructure facilities. The Andhra Pradesh Industrial Infrastructure Corporation (APIIC) has acquired 2200 acres for this city. The salient features of this city are:
A Environmental protective measures
A Single window clearance
A Facilities for Indian/Global MNCs to set up their JV/100% manufacturing units.
This project will have common integrated facilities for effluent treatment/ waste handling and disposal with a pipeline running into the deep sea as per the international norms. It will provide the telecommunication infrastructure, assured water and power supply, airport and seaport.

Formulations Estate:
The Government will also set up two formulations parks, one close to Hyderabad and the other an EPZ, possibly close to the bulk drugs estate. These parks will be provided with assured power and water supply, good roads and telecommunications facilities. The EPZ will be connected to the Vizag Airport/ port by a highway and share the Pharma City air travel infrastructure.

Pharma Development Fund:
A Pharma Development Fund of $ 10 bn is to be created with the contributions from the centre, the State Government and the industry.

Task Force on Pharma:
The AP Chief Minister’s Task Force on Pharma has been set up with the Chief Minister as Chairman, Major Industries Minister as Vice-Chairman and experts from all over the country and eminent industrialists as its members. The task force will deliberate upon the strategies to make the State forge ahead in the pharma sector.
FOOD AND AGRO BASED:
Andhra Pradesh produces over 9.57 million tones of fruits, vegetables and spices and has set a target to produce 22.90 million tones by the year 2020. Andhra Pradesh is the second largest producer of horticulture produce with 1.24 million hectare area under cultivation.

Marine Food: The State’s 1,000 kilometer coastline, 8,577 kilometer river length and 102 reservoirs spread over an area of 2.34 lakh hectare have been the principal sources of its marine foods, fresh water foods, including fish and prawn. The total value of marine exports from India is Rs.64 billion. Andhra Pradesh contributed Rs.22 billion to this and is further enhancing its exports.

Poultry:
Andhra pradesh is the largest egg producer in India, producing 35 million eggs a year. A common facility for egg washing, grading and packing is being set up near Hyderabad.
Agri export zones:
The Agri export zones act as a gateway to the vast opportunities in the international market. These zones take a comprehensive look at specific produce/product for development and sourcing the raw material, their processing/packaging, leading to the final export by integrating an end to end approach.
The Government of India, in association with the State Governments, has identified 28 Agri export zones in 21 states. A total investment of Rs.1325 crores million is planned.
The State has identified five Agri export zones in different districts with specific produce.
The Chittoor AEZ envisages a total investment of Rs. 91.4 crores by private entrepreneurs, Government of Andhra Pradesh and the Government of India. The other AEZs are being developed jointly by the State and Central Governments with an investment of Rs.95.15 crores. Work on AEZ Chittoor commenced with model agency APIIC conducting a work in August 2002.

Food Parks :
The State shall take the initiative in setting up a series of food parks in the State, starting with one in each of the three main regions – Telangana, Andhra and Rayalaseema.
A For Telangana Food Park - processing of poultry products/ processing of coarse grain & millets/ spices (Chillies & turmeric)
A For Coastal Andhra Food Park value added rice products/ dairy products/ horticultural products/ marine products/ labour oriented, export oriented industry.
AFor Rayalaseema Food Park processing of vegetables onion, tomatoes/ fruits/ spices, etc.
A For parks can be set up as a joint venture between government/ government agency like APIIC and a private sector partner from the segment.

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY:

The Government of Andhra Pradesh has identified Information Technology (IT) as one of its major growth engines that would catapult the State into the future.The State has recognized that IT shall play a significant role in achieving its policy objectives like economic development, enhancing the quality of life, and providing good governance to its citizens.

Andhra Pradesh has been able to achieve above 100 per cent CAGR (Compounded Annual Growth Rate) in the IT exports during the period 1992-2000.

All this has been possible due to abundant availability of highly skilled IT manpower, World class technical and social infrastructure, and a pro-active Government.
Existence of world-class institutes such as the Indian School of Business having tie ups with Wharton, Kellogg, the London School of Business, and the International Institute of Information Technology (IIIT) to meet the demands for highly qualified managerial and technical talent.

Investment Opportunities :
Software Development :

A Opportunities exist in the form of offshore development, domestic markets besides the huge opportunities provided by the major e-governance initiatives of the Government.

IT-enabled services:

A IT-enabled services are business processes and services performed or provided from a location different from that of their end users or beneficiaries and are delivered over telecom networks and the Internet.

A The State of Andhra Pradesh presents a gateway to the thriving IT-Enabled Services (ITES) opportunity, estimated to reach US $ 500 billion globally by 2008. During the year 2002-03, the ITES exports from A.P. were recorded at Rs.14110 million (U.S. $ 300 million). ITES exports have grown by 104% during 2002-03 compared to the national average of 65%

A The State government has initiated various reforms, and put in place investor and industry-friendly policies to enable rapid growth and development in IT sector.

A ITES majors such as GE Capital, HSBC and Dell have located significant ITES operations in Hyderabad.

A The city of Hyderabad has been attracting world-wide attention as the leading ITES destination and the place where global companies have chosen to establish their offices.
AThe Government of Andhra Pradesh is strengthening ITES sector by taking several initiatives to make available (a) Skilled manpower, (b) High quality infrastructure, (c) Conducive regulatory environment.

A Training courses in ITES (IT - Enabled Services) are provided in the form of alliances with reputed Universities in the state including Shared training facilities and infrastructure at subsidized costs.

A Andhra Pradesh offers infrastructure of a global standard to support the ITES sector.

A The Government has initiated a number of proactive measures and reforms, which include self-certification, ease in setting up the ITES facility, providing investment subsidy, making available land at subsidised rates etc.

A It has put in place an interface to facilitate the start up process and help ITES companies in obtaining Government approvals. This interface will have the authority to get all State Government approvals on a time bound basis. The ITES companies will interface with assigned account managers, who will take care of all the requisite approvals.

A The Government has amended the existing State laws, notably the AP Shops and Establishments Act, to make them more suitable for ITES companies.

A The government has engaged M/s. McKinsey & Co. to help the state to evolve a highly focused policy for the development of IT enabled services. This exercise is expected to begin to yield results during the year 2003 onwards.

MINES AND MINERALS:

Opportunities in Mining:
Andhra Pradesh is the second largest store house of Mineral Resources in India. A total of 48 minerals were located with vast explored resources of coal, limestone, slabs, etc. and good resources of oil and Natural Gas, Manganese, Asbestos, Iron Ore, Ball Clay, Fire Clay, Gold Diamonds, Graphite, Dolomite, Quartz, Tungsten, Steatitic, Feldspar, Silica Sand etc.

The State stands second in value of mineral production, contributing 8 percent (Rs.4857 Crores) of the country's mineral value production of Rs. 59509 Crores and approximately Rs. 634 Crores by way of foreign exchange. It produces about 70 million tonnes of industrial minerals and 8 million cubic metres of dimensional stones and building material, contributing nearly Rs. 770 Crores to the state exchequer.
The State stands fourth in Mineral value of production, contributing 7 per cent (Rs.4030 crores) of the country’s mineral value of production of Rs.56807 crores and approximately Rs.498 crores by way of foreign exchange. It produces about 66 million tonnes of Industrial minerals and seven million cubic meters of dimensional stones and building material contributing nearly Rs.665 crores to the State Exchequer.
The State has identified the mining sector as one of the growth engines for the overall development of industry and infrastructure. With its vast explored mineral potential and natural infrastructure, forms a natural opportunity for investment and development of minerals and mining projects. The State envisages mineral projects with the participation and investment from the private sector.

Opportunities Galore :
Rich reserve of minerals are awaiting exploitation with Private Sector investments in the following fields :

Bauxite
700 million tonnes of metal grade Bauxite deposits in close proximity to Visakhapatnam Port. Opportunity available for establishing an Integrated Bauxite Mining, Manufacturing Alumina / Aluminum Plant.

Gold & Diamond

Gold occurs in 11 districts and Diamond is found over 50,000 sq.kms in 9 districts. Opportunities for exploration and exploitation of Gold and Diamond.

Beach Sands

16 stretches containing good deposits of Ilmenite, Rutile, Zircon, Garnet have been identified along the East Coast. Opportunities available for Beach Sand Mining, Mineral Separation and setting up of Titanium dioxide and Synthetic Rutile Plants, etc.

Granite

Worldwide known Galaxy Granite, Srikakulam Blue, Warangal and Khammam Black, occur in abundant quantities. Opportunity available for developing a Granite Park in joint ventures.

Ceramics

Largest source for various Clays, Feldspar, Quartz, Silica Sand, Rare Earths (Titanites / Zirconites) for the manufacture of ceramics. Opportunity available for development of advanced ceramics like Electro and Mechano Ceramics.

Mineral Based Industries:
Andhra Pradesh with varied geological formations, contain rich & variety of industrial minerals and building stones. It is historically known for mineral potential and repository for future exploration. The state is known for large exclusive deposits of Barytes and Galaxy granite in the international market. Minerals like coal, oil and Natural gas, barytes, Limestone, diamond, gold beach sand bauxite, ball clay fire clay, dolomite, dimensional stones etc are still under tapped or untapped.

Andhra Pradesh is an important destination for host of minerals in the entire southern India. The wide variety of mineral produce from the State is being traded or consumed in Power, Metals, Alloys, Cement, Chemicals, Paint, Cosmetic, Glass, Ceramics, Refractory, Refinery and manufacture of various down stream industries. The mineral produce from the State cater a wide range of industries and have potential for expansion and development of new industries.

Natural Gas - The Preferred Fuel

Natural Gas is rapidly emerging as the preferred fuel all over the World as well as in India since it is more environment friendly, convenient to transport and use and has several techno-economic advantage. The share of gas in the World energy mix is at present 23 percent, while that of oil is 40 percent. Thus, 63% of world energy comes from hydrocarbons. In India, hydrocarbons account for 44.4% of energy mix, 34% by oil and 10.4 percent by natural gas. Though natural gas was initially used as a petro-chemical feedstock, it is now used in the fertilizer, industrial, power and domestic sectors and more recently, in the transport sector.

Recent Spectacular Discoveries Of Gas

With continuous surveys and offshore exploration for gas in KG Basin, spectacular new discovery of gas was made by Reliance Industries Limited (RIL) in October, 2002. RIL struck 9 Trillion cubic Feed (tcft) of gas reserves, the biggest gas find in India in three decades, in the exploration block called KGBDW-6 (renamed asKG-DWN-98/3) in deep waters, 150 Kms off the Andhra Pradesh Coast near Kakinada. Cairn Energy also announced discovery of about 1 tcft of gas in Krishna Godavari Basin. The present estimates indicate that RIL can supply 40 MMSCMD of gas per day after all the facilities are built and gas transported to landfall point near Kakinada. ONGC, Gujarat State Petroleum Corpn. Ltd and Reliance Industries Limited are further intensifying exploration for gas, both onshore and offshore in Krishna Godavari Basin and we may expect considerable additions to gas availability.

Boost For Industrial And Economic Growth
Discovery of large quantity of natural gas in KG Basin is expected to lead to long term contracts with reasonable prices. Such as situation provides exciting opportunities for industries in Andhra Pradesh to become internationally competitive and spur rapid economic growth. The Government of Andhra Pradesh is keen to ensure that maximum quantity of gas found in KGB is utilized in AP to overcome the energy shortage, give impetus to new industries, create employment opportunities and contribute to economic value addition and exports.

TEXTILES AND LEATHER:

Apparel Export Park , Gundla Pochampally:

Government of AP, has set up an Apparel Export Park at Gundlapochampally, about 18 Kilometers from Hyderabad. The 175-acre park has 117 plots of one acre each for allocation to manufacturers and exporters of apparels, both made-ups and hosiery.

It has a facility for uninterrupted good quality power supply from a dedicated sub-station located at the park site, besides other facilities like roads, treated drinking water, drainage and effluent discharge by pipes, sewerage systems and a security wall.

A number of business facilities like warehouses, fire station, truck terminals, training institute, commercial bank, post office, courier service, telcom office, etc., have been planned around the park to facilitate speedier business transactions.

Following are location advantages for the units at the Apparel Export Park:

The twin cities of Hyderabad and Secunderabad are fast developing into a major garment export center.
Hyderabad has easy access to all major cities and cotton growing and inputs manufacturing centers through well-built road, rail and airline net-work.
The Hyderabad airport is at a distance of around 15 kilometers from the park.
Skilled labour with good work ethics is available at relatively lower cost.
The units in the park have been declared as Public Utilities to prevent illegal labour strikes.
The Apparel Training and Design Center set up by the Apparel Export Promotion Council located at Hyderabad is training manpower required for the industry.
Institutional support is provided by the Government and the APIIC, the implementing agency, to all the units located in the park.
Six Garment Units, viz., Chermas, Fantoosh, Karthik, Racherla, Symatic and Hindustan have already set up their factories in the park and doing roaring business. Another five Garment Units have commenced civil works.

Apparel Export Park , Vishakhapatnam

Government of India have sanctioned Apparel Export Park, Vishakhapatnam, with an estimated cost of Rs.27.53 Crores. Infrastructure Development is taking place in a sprawling 145 acres land in a prime location. This park is having the following locational advantages: The ‘City of Steel’ Vishakhapatnam is the home for major industries in Pubic Sector as well as Private Sector. It has distinct locational advantage of being equidistant from major industrial centers of Delhi, Pune, Baroda, Chennai and Calcutta and with easy access to South East Asia, South Asia, Japan and Korea.
The city is well connected by road, rail, seaways and airways. Abundance of raw material resources together with easy availability of managerial, technical, skilled and unskilled manpower at low wages and peaceful industrial relations makes the city an ideal choice for an entrepreneur. The city has excellent educational institutions, modern hospitals, housing facilities, recreational centers, comparable to the best in the country.

Textile Parks:

One Textile Park at Sircilla, Karimnagar District, which is sanctioned by Government of India is buzzing with activity and ready for starting textile manufacturing. Government of A.P. have drawn an ambitious plan to achieve $ 2 billion exports by establishing 5 Apparel Export Parks (Gundlapochampally near Hyderabad, Maheswaram near Hyderabad, Vishakhapatnam, Kuppam and Warangal) and 12 Textile Parks (Sircilla, (Karimnagar), Chirala (Prakasham), Pochampally (Nalgonda), Pashamylaram (Medak), Pamidi and Rayadurg (Ananthapur), Adilabad, Rajam (Srikakulam), Kothur (Mahaboobnagar), Mangalagiri (Guntur), Nagari (Chittoor) and Yemminganur (Kurnool).

TOURISM:

Andhra Pradesh is rich in its Historical Monuments. It possesses many holy temples with architectural beauty, which attract large numbers of pilgrims and tourists from all over the world. The main tourist attraction are the world famous Salarjung Museum, Charminar, Golconda Fort, Nagarjuna Sagar, Simhachalam, Araku Valley, Tirupati, Srisailam, Bhadrachalam, Lepakshi, Amaravati, and the Thousand-Pillared Temple in Warangal. Andhra Pradesh has it all -beaches, hills, wildlife and forests, forts, temples, Buddhist sites, bird sanctuaries and much more.

In order to facilitate the Tourism Department, the Government of Andhra Pradesh has adopted an investor friendly, open door policy for the investors, with the State Tourism Promotion Board. It has approved of the idea for a one-stop clearance body which will be headed by the Chief Minister. The Government is setting up two companies-one to raise capital for tourism projects and the other to facilitate joint ventures. Investors are assured of a co-operative Government and transparent administration.

The variety of tourist attractions include:

The convention and heritage tourism

Sea and inland water cruise tourism

Pilgrim Tourism

Health tourism

Buddhist circuit and Buddhist sites

Science and technology tourism

Beach tourism

Eco tourism

Leisure tourism

Wild life tourism

Adventure tourism

Fairs and Festivals and
Rural / Village tourism

General Knowledge and General Science

2010-01-11T00:58:00.001-08:00

R.A.S./R.T.S. (Pre.) Examination, 2008
(Held On 7-1-2009)
General Knowledge and General Science Solved paper

1. Minamata disease is caused by—
(A) Mercury
(B) Cadmium
(C) Lead
(D) Zinc

2. Government of Rajasthan has constituted one organisation to advise the government on reforms in economic matters. This organisation is named as—
(A) Economic Policy and Reforms Council
(B) Reform Committee on Economic Policy
(C) Council for Economic Reforms
(D) Economic Advisory Committee

3. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution, it is the duty of the Union Government to protect States against external aggression and internal disturbance ?
(A) Article 355
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 352
(D) Article 360

4. Which one of the following groups of organisms has significance in diagnosing the death by drowing ?
(A) Lichens
(B) Protozoa
(C) Cyanobacteria
(D) Diatoms

5. When there is a very heavy rainfall in the Pushkar Hills, where does floods occur ?
(A) Ajmer
(B) Sawai Madhopur
(C) Balotra
(D) Sojat

6. On a specific day and time, temperature was 48°C in Churu and 24°C in Shimla. Two metallic cups identical in all respects contained water at 95°C in Churu and 71°C in Shimla. Which one of these two cups reached room temperature first ?
(A) Cup in Churu
(B) Cup in Shimla
(C) Both cups reached room temperature at the same time
(D) Data are not enough to find out result

7. Who won the Booker’s Prize, 2008 ?
(A) Arvind Adiga
(B) Aruna Roy
(C) Rajendra Singh
(D) Medha Patekar

8. The first woman ‘Four-star General’ in United States of America Military is—
(A) Haldun Woody
(B) Anna Maehays
(C) Mike Mullen
(D) Anne Dun Woody

9. Which one of the following acid is formed during the change of milk into curd ?
(A) Acetic acid
(B) Ascorbic acid
(C) Citric acid
(D) Lactic acid

10. What is the height of Guru Shikhar Peak in Rajasthan ?
(A) 1722 metres
(B) 1727 metres
(C) 1750 metres
(D) 1780 metres

11. Khariya, Raswani, Shobhala and Udisbhar are—
(A) The varieties of wines
(B) Actors of kuchamani khyal
(C) Villages of Barmer district
(D) The varieties of Kota Doriya sarees

12. ‘Archaeopteryx’ is a connecting link between which of the following classes of animal ?
(A) Amphibia and Aves
(B) Reptilia and Aves
(C) Reptilia and Mammalia
(D) Aves and Mammalia

13. Tick mark correct statement—
(A) CIMMCO wagon factory restarted in Bharatpur after eight years
(B) CIMMCO factory is started at Bhiwadi for manufacturing coaches
(C) CIMMCO factory is manufacturing chassis of trucks and buses at Alwar
(D) CIMMCO company is engaged in exports of coaches to Asian countries

14. Where is Port Pradeep located ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Karnataka
(C) West Bengal
(D) Orissa

15. Mangla-Bhagyam, Shakti and Aishwarya—
(A) Are three schemes for upliftment of scheduled castes’ girls
(B) Are oil fields discovered in Barmer-Sanchore basin
(C) Are three universities established in Private sector
(D) Produce natural gas from Jaisalmer basin to supply Ramgah power plant

16. Among the crafts that have been shortlisted by National Institute of Design for Geographical Indicator Status is—
(A) Jaipur for blue pottery and Udaipur for clay work
(B) Zari work of Ajmer and block printing of Sanganer
(C) Embroidary of Barmer and wollens of Jaisalmer
(D) Paintings of Kishangadh and Namdas of Tonk

17. Pearl is mainly constituted of—
(A) Calcium oxalate
(B) Calcium sulphate
(C) Calcium carbonate
(D) Calcium oxide

18. Where is the famous ‘Finger Lake Region’ located ?
(A) Australia
(B) Austria
(C) United States of America (U.S.A.)
(D) Britain

19. In which year did a major flood occur in Kawas in Barmer ?
(A) 2005
(B) 2006
(C) 2007
(D) 2008

20. Which sect has the headquarters located at Shahpura (Bhilwara) ?
(A) Dadu sect
(B) Vallabh sect
(C) Nimbark sect
(D) Ramsnehi sect

21. Ashtadhyayi was written by—
(A) Varahmihira
(B) Kalidas
(C) Panini
(D) Balram

22. The whole dispute between Subhash Bose and right wing, after the Tripuri session of Congress centred round to the question of—
(A) Formation of Congress working committee
(B) Policy towards princely states
(C) Attitude towards central government
(D) Double membership of Congress Socialist Party members

23. Adamya Chetna Trust, Havells India Limited, Hindustan Zinc Limited and DSCL Kota (Shree Ram Group) are some Trust/Corporates related to—
(A) Production of handicrafts and industrial goods
(B) Mid-Day Meal Programme
(C) Infrastructure development in Rajasthan
(D) Special Economic Zone in Rajasthan

24. One Rajasthan-born industrialist contributed a sum of Rs. 22,000 in 1920s to C.V. Raman’s path breaking research which won him the Nobel Prize—
(A) Purshotam Das Bajaj
(B) Jamshedjee Tata
(C) Magni Ram Bangur
(D) Ghanshyam Das Birla

25. Who is the author ‘ANDHAYUG’ ?
(A) Ram Dhari Singh Dinkar
(B) Mahaveer Prasad Diwedi
(C) Dharam Veer Bharti
(D) Mohan Rakesh

26. United Nations General Assembly President is—
(A) John Major
(B) Miguel d’Escoto
(C) Jacquesrene Chirac
(D) Jiang Zemin

27. In which continent are the Atlas Mountains situated ?
(A) Asia
(B) Africa
(C) Australia
(D) Europe

28. Per Capita Income at current prices in Rajasthan during 2007-08 is about—
(A) 20,000 Rs.
(B) 22,000 Rs.
(C) 24,000 Rs.
(D) 18,000 Rs.

29. Nawalgadh (Sikar) in Rajasthan was in news because of—
(A) Bumper crop of kharif season particularly the production of bajra
(B) The government of Rajasthan has taken responsibility to provide the land to cement manufacturers
(C) Ginder Utsav is started during the month of Shrawan to attract tourists
(D) A private university is sanctioned by government for this area

30. Which one of the following changes occur when salt is added in the water ?
(A) Boiling point is increased and freezing point is decreased
(B) Boiling point is decreased and freezing point is increased
(C) Both boiling point and freezing point are decreased
(D) Both boiling point and freezing point are increased

31. When a person enters in a dark room from strong light area, he is not able to see clearly for some
time. Later he gradually begins to see things. This is because—
(A) Changes in the size of pupil
(B) Changes in the diameter and focal length of lens
(C) Bleaching and reformation of Rhodopsins
(D) Eyes become familiar with darkness in course of time

32. Exclude which is not correct—
(A) RUDA is functioning for creation of more avenues of employment in the rural nonfarm sector
(B) Bureau of Investment Promotion is an agency for promotion of Small Scale Industry projects
(C) RIICO is an apex organization engaged in postering growth of industrialisation in the state
(D) Rajasthan Small Industries Corporation is functioning to assist Small Scale Industry and handicrafts

33. The art style which combines Indian and Greek feature is called—
(A) Sikhar
(B) Verra
(C) Gandhar
(D) Nagar

34. In which city of India, first D.N.A. Bank of Asia is established recently ?
(A) Jaipur
(B) Kota
(C) Chennai
(D) Lucknow

35. Raika’s in Rajasthan are—
(A) Traditionals horse breeders
(B) Traditional camel breeders
(C) Used to sell goods from village to village
(D) Salt-traders

36. The first session of Rajputana-Madhyabharat Sabha was held in 1918 at—
(A) Delhi
(B) Ajmer
(C) Indore
(D) Udaipur

37. Who is the author of the book named ‘The Audacity of Hope’ ?
(A) Nayan Tara Sehgal
(B) Salman Rushdie
(C) Vikram Seth
(D) Barack Obama

38. RIDCOR stands for—
(A) Road Infrastructure Development Company of Rajasthan
(B) Rail Information Download Corporation of Rajasthan
(C) Rajasthan Indoor Decoration Corporation of Railways
(D) Rail Infrastructure Development Corporation of Rajasthan

39. Inscription which throw light on the writings of Maharana Kumbha is—
(A) Kumbhalgarh inscription (1460 A.D.)
(B) Kirtistambha Prashasti (1460 A.D.)
(C) Jagannath Rai inscription (1652 A.D.)
(D) Raj Prashasti (1676 A.D.)

40. Jnan Pith award has been given to (06th November 2008)—
(A) Vinit Narayan
(B) Rehman Rahi
(C) Kamleshwar
(D) Gyan Chaturvedi

41. For which desirable character the transgenic crop ‘Golden Rice’ is produced ?
(A) Vitamin ‘A’
(B) Essential Amino Acids
(C) Insulin
(D) Characteristic Starch

42. The world’s youngest King belongs to which country ?
(A) Saudi Arab
(B) Japan
(C) Bhutan
(D) Thailand

43. Mammoth is the ancestor of—
(A) Dog
(B) Horse
(C) Camel
(D) Elephant

44. Which district in Rajasthan grows, in largest quantity, psyllium husk (planto ovata) or ‘Isabgol’ ?
(A) Jhalawar
(B) Jalore
(C) Sirohi
(D) Bundi

45. Who launched the ‘Lasodia Movement’ for social reforms amongst the Bhils of Mewar, Bagar and nearby regions ?
(A) Mavji
(B) Govind Giri
(C) Surmal Das
(D) Moti Lal Tejawat

46. Chairman of Indian Space and Research Organization is—
(A) Krishna Swamy Kasturirangan
(B) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(C) G. Madhavan Nair
(D) K.M. Bhandari

47. Most stable Ecosystem is
(A) Forest
(B) Grassland
(C) Desert
(D) Marine

48. Which tree is called the ‘Flame of the Forest in Rajasthan’ ?
(A) Khejri
(B) Neem
(C) Palas
(D) Paras Peepul

49. Which city is known as ‘Suncity’ in Rajasthan ?
(A) Jodhpur
(B) Udaipur
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaisalmer

50. Which was common among Brahma Samaj, Ram Krishna Mission and Arya Samaj ?
(A) None of these three had a political mission, but they helped to develop a spirit of patriotism
(B) All the three originated from Bengal
(C) Founder of all the three were educated in England
(D) Founder of all the three took active part in politics

51. Tick mark which is incorrect about NREGA—
(A) This Act spells out the type of works which are permitted
(B) Like in other government programmes transparency and accountability is also not possible in this programme
(C) This Act specifies the individual works but only for the scheduled castes and tribes below the poverty line
(D) The guarantee of •274 year employment during a year is possibly the most important feature of this Act.

52. Mahajanpad situated on the bank of river Godavari was—
(A) Avanti
(B) Vatsa
(C) Assaka
(D) Kamboja

53. Which mineral is found in Nathra-ki-Pal area of Rajasthan ?
(A) Iron ore
(B) Copper
(C) Lead and Zinc
(D) Manganese

54. One of the following sites from where the famous Bull-seal of Indus Valley Civilization was found—
(A) Harappa
(B) Chanhudaro
(C) Lothal
(D) Mohenjodaro

55. Tick mark which is incorrect about inflation—
(A) Inflation indicates the rise in the price of a basket of commodities on a point-to-point basis
(B) The inflation rate in India is calculated on the basis of the wholesale price index
(C) For some commodities retail prices are also considered for measurement of inflation
(D) Inflation rate going down does not mean prices are declining

56. Which district has the least population density in Rajasthan ?
(A) Bikaner
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Barmer
(D) Jaisalmer

57. Bio-magnification means—
(A) Fast spreading of cancer cells in the body
(B) Increasing the amount of pesticides in the organisms of successive trophic level
(C) To see the microscopic parts of the body by microscope
(D) Sudden increase in the number of the individuals of a species in a specific area

58. Chandrayaan-I was launched from—
(A) Orissa
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Karnataka
(D) Andhra Pradesh

59. By which process, Alum cleans the muddy water ?
(A) Absorption
(B) Adsorption
(C) Coagulation
(D) Dialysis

60. Match List-I (Development Programme) with List-II (Coverage Area) and give the correct answer on the basis of codes given below the list—
List-I
(a) Mewat Area Development Programme
(b) Border Area Development Programme
(c) Dang Area Development Programme
(d) Magra Area Development Programme
List-II
1. Eight blocks of Alwar and three blocks of Bharatpur
2. Thirteen blocks of four Districts
3. 357 Gram Panchayats of 21 Panchayat Samitis
4. 14 blocks covering Ajmer, Bhilwara, Chittorgarh, Pali and Rajsamand districts
5. Saharia tribal families residing in Shahbad and Kishangarh blocks
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 3 5 2
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 2 1 5 3
(D) 1 4 2 3

61. Handloom Mark shows the standard of—
(A) Handloom clothes
(B) Craft works
(C) Hand embroidery
(D) Hand block printing

62. Which country has signed an agreement on civil nuclear cooperation with India in September 2008 ?
(A) Australia
(B) Japan
(C) Brazil
(D) France

63. Who was appointed as President of South Africa after resignation of Thabo Mbeki ?
(A) Nelson Mandela
(B) Kglema Motlanthe
(C) Taro Aso
(D) Morgan Tsvangirai

64. In which year was the Desert development programme started in Rajasthan ?
(A) 1960-61
(B) 1977-78
(C) 1982-83
(D) 1994-95

65. Which of the following pair is matching ?
(A) Badla (Water-bottle) — Jaipur
(B) Masuria Sari — Kota
(C) Namda — Jodhpur
(D) Marble Carving — Tonk

66. Under whose Command Marwari forces were sent to Khanwa to support Sanga against Babur ?
(A) Rao Ganga
(B) Maldeo
(C) Biram Deo
(D) Suja

67. The ‘Hot Spot’ of Biodiversity in India are—
(A) Western Himalayas and Eastern Ghat
(B) Western Himalayas and Sunderban
(C) Eastern Himalayas and Western Ghat
(D) Eastern Himalayas and Silent Valley

68. Who has been chosen for the Bharat-Ratna ?
(A) Devanand
(B) Pandit Bhimsen Joshi
(C) Kanshi Ram
(D) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

69. What is the product found in large quantities in Churu-Bikaner-Sri Ganganagar belt, which is (i) a source of environmental pollution, (ii) used for raising soil fertility, and (iii) after value addition, is used in health and building sector ?
(A) Limestone
(B) Lignite
(C) Fullers Earth
(D) Gypsum

70. In Rajasthan each state had a Mahakma Baqoit which used to—
(A) Charge the revenue arrears in good harvest years
(B) Make the payments of King’s dues
(C) Collect the dues from government servants
(D) Collect the loans for the Kings

71. Generally where coral reefs are found ?
(A) In temperate climate above 18°C
(B) Between tropics of cancer and tropics of capricorn coastal areas
(C) On both east and west coasts of continents and islands only
(D) On colder sea coasts

72. Which one of the followings is used in the synthesis of polythene ?
(A) Methane
(B) Ethylene
(C) Propane
(D) Butane

73. A bird’s eye view of macro economic developments under various programmes launched by the state government in Rajasthan is available in—
(A) Economic Review
(B) Reserve Bank of India Bulletin
(C) Economic and Political Weekly
(D) Sujas

74. How many are there ‘Million Plus Population’ cities in India (Census 2001) ?
(A) 39
(B) 29
(C) 49
(D) 59

75. National Water Development Agency was established in the year—
(A) 1969
(B) 1970
(C) 1980
(D) 1990

76. Author of ‘Nyaya Darshan’ was—
(A) Gautam
(B) Kanad
(C) Kapil
(D) Badrayan

77. KANDHMAL is in which State ?
(A) Orissa
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Gujarat

78. Indian PM Manmohan Singh is an elected member of Rajya Sabha from which State ?
(A) Punjab
(B) Haryana
(C) Assam
(D) Gujarat

79. In which province Muslim League formed their government after 1946 elections ?
(A) Bengal
(B) North-West Frontier
(C) Punjab
(D) Bihar

80. Which city can be called ‘the Manchester’ of Rajasthan ?
(A) Kota
(B) Pali
(C) Beawar
(D) Bhilwara

81. Pheromones are found in—
(A) Insects
(B) Snakes
(C) Birds
(D) Bats

82. Which State is not a part of ‘seven sisters’ of North-Eastern States ?
(A) Meghalaya
(B) West Bengal
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Tripura

83. The main function of colonization in Rajasthan is to—
(A) Provide residential plots
(B) Acquire land by the government
(C) Provide irrigation facilities
(D) Allot land

84. Who is the Governor of West Bengal ?
(A) Gopal Gandhi
(B) Shiv Charan Mathur
(C) Surjeet Singh Barnala
(D) Nawal Kishore Sharma

85. Which Act introduced ‘Dyarchy’ at the centre ?
(A) The Act of 1909
(B) Government of India Act, 1919
(C) Government of India Act, 1935
(D) The Indian Independence Act, 1947

86. The symbol of World Wild-life Fund is—
(A) Polar Bear
(B) White Bear
(C) Red Panda
(D) Cheeta

87. The Electoral College for the United States Presidential Election is constituted by the—
(A) Members of United States Congress
(B) Members of House of Representatives
(C) Members of Senate
(D) None of them

88. In what direction Monsoon rainfall in Rajasthan increases ?
(A) Southwest-Northeast
(B) Southeast-Northwest
(C) Northwest-Southeast
(D) South-North

89. Dhawadia were the persons—
(A) Engaged in looting of caravans and kafilas
(B) Who used to collect the taxes for kings
(C) Who used to stock the foodgrains
(D) Who used to participate in the race

90. By which process the sea water can be converted into pure water ?
(A) Deliquescence
(B) Efflorescence
(C) Electric separation
(D) Reverse osmosis

91. Place where the ‘Jal Durg’ (fort erected in water) is located—
(A) Ajmer
(B) Amber
(C) Siwana
(D) Gagron

92. In which of the following crop Azolla-Anabaena biofertilizer is used ?
(A) Wheat
(B) Rice
(C) Mustard
(D) Cotton

93. To which school of painting ‘Bani Thani’ was related ?
(A) Bundi school
(B) Kishangarh school
(C) Chawand school
(D) Jaipur school

94. Which group of districts has highest forest area ?
(A) Baran - Udaipur - Chittaurgarh
(B) Bharatpur - Jhalawar - Kota
(C) Karauli - Sirohi - Dungarpur
(D) Banswara - Dholpur – Raj Samand

95. Which one of the following statements in FALSE ?
(A) The special rubber tyres of air craft are made slightly conducting
(B) The blue waves scattered more than violet waves of light so that the sky appears blue not violet
(C) A comb run through one’s wet hair does not attract small bits of paper
(D) Vehicles carrying inflammable material usually have metallic ropes touching the ground

96. Maximum production of ‘khas’ comes from which belt of Rajasthan ?
(A) Sawai Madhopur – Bharatpur - Tonk
(B) Gangapur - Dausa - Alwar
(C) Jhalawar - Kota - Bundi
(D) Dungarpur - Banswara – Udaipur

97. Who represented Congress in Second Round Table Conference ?
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) Moti Lal Nehru
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Mahatma Gandhi

98. The author of ‘Vamsa Bhaskar’ is—
(A) Bankidas
(B) Gauri Shankar Ojha
(C) Kaviraj Shymaldas
(D) Surajmal Misran

99. The Maitri Express train is introduced between the stations—
(A) Kolkata and Dhaka
(B) Amritsar and Lahore
(C) Delhi and Srinagar
(D) Lucknow and Kathmandu

100. Baxa Tiger Project is located in which state of India ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Gujarat
(D) West Bengal

Answers :
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (B)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (B) 16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (B) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (C) 26. (B) 27. (B) 28. (B) 29. (C) 30. (A)
31. (D) 32. (B) 33. (C) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (D) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (B)
41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (D) 44. (B) 45. (B) 46. (C) 47. (D) 48. (C) 49. (A) 50. (A)
51. (B) 52. (C) 53. (A) 54. (D) 55. (D) 56. (D) 57. (B) 58. (D) 59. (C) 60. (B)
61. (B) 62. (D) 63. (B) 64. (B) 65. (B) 66. (A) 67. (C) 68. (B) 69. (D) 70. (B)
71. (A) 72. (B) 73. (A)
74. (*) In India as per population Census-2001, the number of ‘Million Plus Population’ cities is 35. Thus, all the four alternatives given in the question are incorrect.
75. (*) National Water Development Agency was set in July 1982 as Autonomous Society.
76. (A) 77. (A) 78. (C) 79. (A) 80. (C) 81. (A) 82. (B) 83. (D) 84. (A) 85. (C)
86. (C) 87. (A) 88. (A) 89. (A) 90. (D) 91. (D) 92. (B) 93. (B) 94. (D) 95. (B)
96. (A) 97. (D) 98. (D) 99. (A) 100. (D)

UPSC CALENDAR for EXAMINATIONS - 2010

2010-01-10T20:52:00.001-08:00

UPSC CALENDAR for EXAMINATIONS - 2010

S.No.
NAME OF EXAMINATION
DATE OF NOTIFICATION
LAST DATE FOR RECEIPT OF APPLICATIONS
DATE OF COMMENCEMENT OF EXAM
DURATION OF EXAM.

1
COMBINED MEDICAL SERVICES EXAM, 2010
05.09.2009
05.10.2009 (MONDAY)
17.01.2010
(SUNDAY)
1 DAY

2
C.D.S. EXAM.(I), 2010
26.09.2009
26.10.2009 (MONDAY)
14.02.2010
(SUNDAY)
1 DAY

3
N.D.A. & N.A. EXAM.(I), 2010
17.10.2009
16.11.2009 (MONDAY)
18.04.2010
(SUNDAY)
1 DAY

4
CIVIL SERVICES (PREL.) EXAM., 2010
02.01.2010
01.02.2010 (MONDAY)
23.05.2010
(SUNDAY)
1 DAY

5
ENGINEERING SERVICES EXAMINATION, 2010
30.01.2010
02.03.2010 (TUESDAY)
26.06.2010 (SATURDAY)
3 DAYS

6
INDIAN FOREST SERVICE EXAM, 2010
20.02.2010
22.03.2010 (MONDAY)
10.07.2010 (SATURDAY)
10 DAYS

7
N.D.A. & N.A. EXAM.(II), 2010
20.03.2010
19.04.2010 (MONDAY)
22.08.2010
(SUNDAY)
1 DAY

8
C.D.S. EXAM.(II), 2010
17.04.2010
17.05.2010 (MONDAY)
19.09.2010
(SUNDAY)
1 DAY

9
CENTRAL POLICE FORCES (AC) EXAM., 2010
15.05.2010
14.06.2010 (MONDAY)
24.10.2010
(SUNDAY)
1 DAY

10
CIVIL SERVICES (MAIN) EXAM., 2010

29.10.2010
(FRIDAY)
21 DAYS

11
I.E.S./I.S.S. EXAM., 2010
05.06.2010
05.07.2010 (MONDAY)
04.12.2010 (SATURDAY)
3 DAYS

12
GEOLOGISTS' EXAM., 2010
12.06.2010
12.07.2010 (MONDAY)
04.12.2010 (SATURDAY)
3 DAYS

13
S.O./STENO (GD-B/GD-I) LTD. DEPTTL. COMPETITIVE EXAM.
26.06.2010
23.08.2010 (MONDAY)
26.12.2010
(SUNDAY)
4 DAYS

NOTE:- THE DATES OF NOTIFICATION AND COMMENCEMENT OF EXAMINATIONS ARE LIABLE

TO ALTERATION, IF THE CIRCUMSTANCES SO WARRANT.